HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. Before administering an intramuscular injection, the nurse's finger is stuck with the needle. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Go to the emergency room to have blood drawn
- B. Prepare the medication using a new syringe
- C. Apply clean gloves before giving the medication
- D. Review the medical history in the client's chart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, if the nurse's finger is stuck with the needle before administering the injection, the correct action is to prepare the medication using a new syringe. This step is crucial to prevent contamination and ensure the safety of the patient. Going to the emergency room to have blood drawn is unnecessary and does not address the immediate issue of contamination. Applying clean gloves is important for infection control but does not address the potential contamination from the needlestick. Reviewing the medical history in the client's chart is important for overall patient care but is not the priority in this situation where immediate action is required to prevent harm.
2. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?
- A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
- B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
- C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
- D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.
3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?
- A. Right lower abdominal pain
- B. Confusion
- C. Depression
- D. Peripheral neuropathy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.
4. A female client on the mental health unit frequently asks the nurse when she can be discharged. Then, becoming more anxious, she begins to pace the hallway. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the current treatment plan with the client
- B. Inform the healthcare provider about the client’s behaviors
- C. Determine if the client has PRN medication for anxiety
- D. Explore the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Exploring the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged should be the first intervention as it helps to address underlying anxieties and concerns. By understanding the client's motivations, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions. It can also reduce distress and improve the therapeutic relationship. Reviewing the treatment plan (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate distress takes precedence. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice B) can be considered later if necessary. Determining if the client has PRN medication (Choice C) is relevant, but exploring the underlying reasons for the desire to be discharged is more beneficial in this situation.
5. Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel
- B. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket
- C. Record the findings on the flow sheet
- D. Check the vital signs in 15 minutes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to record the findings on the flow sheet. The newborn's axillary temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. Therefore, there is no immediate need for intervention or further assessment. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket, placing a pulse oximeter on the heel, or checking the vital signs in 15 minutes are not necessary actions based on the normal assessment findings presented. These actions could potentially disrupt the newborn or lead to unnecessary interventions when the baby is stable.
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