HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Patch one eye.
- B. Reorient often.
- C. Range of motion.
- D. Evaluate swallow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.
2. A child with heart failure (HF) is taking digitalis. Which sign indicates to the nurse that the child may be experiencing digitalis toxicity?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Vomiting
- D. Muscle cramps
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting is a common sign of digitalis toxicity and should be closely monitored. While tachycardia is a common sign of heart failure, it is not typically associated with digitalis toxicity (Choice A). Dyspnea (Choice B) and muscle cramps (Choice D) are not specific signs of digitalis toxicity and can be present in other conditions. Therefore, the presence of vomiting should raise concerns about digitalis toxicity in the child with heart failure.
3. When assessing a client's blood pressure and determining an auscultatory gap, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Compare the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure
- B. Assess the client for lightheadedness upon standing
- C. Determine if an automated blood pressure reading is consistent with the manual reading
- D. Observe for changes in blood pressure between lying and sitting positions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When an auscultatory gap is present, comparing the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure is crucial. This helps to accurately measure blood pressure and detect any discrepancies caused by the gap. Assessing for lightheadedness upon standing (choice B) is unrelated to addressing an auscultatory gap. Checking the consistency between automated and manual blood pressure readings (choice C) is important for validation but not specifically for managing an auscultatory gap. Observing blood pressure changes between lying and sitting positions (choice D) is relevant for orthostatic hypotension assessment but not for dealing with an auscultatory gap.
4. The client with diabetes mellitus type 1 has a fruity breath odor. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Evaluate the client’s intake and output
- B. Measure the client’s capillary blood glucose
- C. Consult with the dietitian about the client’s diet
- D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the client’s finger
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fruity breath odor in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 can indicate ketoacidosis, a serious complication. Measuring the client’s capillary blood glucose is the priority nursing action in this scenario as it helps diagnose and manage the condition effectively. Evaluating intake and output may be important for overall assessment but not the priority when dealing with a potential emergency like ketoacidosis. Consulting with a dietitian about the client’s diet is important for long-term management but not the immediate priority. Applying a pulse oximeter is not relevant to addressing the fruity breath odor and suspected ketoacidosis.
5. Several months after a foot injury, an adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will 'finally go away.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that healing from the injury can take many months.
- B. Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.
- C. Encourage the client to verbalize her fears about the pain.
- D. Complete an assessment of the client’s functional ability.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.' In cases of chronic neuropathic pain, complete resolution is often not achievable. Therefore, the most appropriate approach is to help the client develop strategies to manage the pain effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it may give false hope of immediate resolution, which is unlikely with neuropathic pain. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's need for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on functional ability assessment, which is not the priority when addressing the client's pain concerns.
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