HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Patch one eye.
- B. Reorient often.
- C. Range of motion.
- D. Evaluate swallow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.
2. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
- A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
- B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
- C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
- D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.
3. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad.' In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Feed the client a snack
- B. Empty the urinary drainage bag
- C. Offer the client oral fluids
- D. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure, if left uncontrolled, significantly increases the risk of stroke secondary to hemorrhage and other cardiovascular events. This condition can lead to serious complications due to the increased pressure on the blood vessels in the brain. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the potential pathophysiological consequences of uncontrolled hypertension and are not the primary concern in this scenario.
4. Two hours after delivering a 9-pound infant, a client saturates a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Although an IV containing Pitocin is infusing, her uterus remains boggy, even with massage. The healthcare provider prescribes methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM STAT. Which complication should the nurse be alert to this client developing?
- A. Decreased respiratory rate
- B. Increased temperature
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. One of the potential side effects is hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Methergine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Methergine is not known to cause decreased respiratory rate, increased temperature, or tachycardia.
5. When taking a health history of a client admitted with acute pancreatitis, which client complaint should be expected?
- A. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain
- B. Severe headache and sweating all the time
- C. Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal
- D. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal.' This symptom is characteristic of acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas, which often presents with severe pain in the mid-epigastric region that may worsen after eating. Choices A, B, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain (Choice A) may be more indicative of other conditions like diverticulitis. Severe headache and sweating (Choice B) are commonly seen in conditions like migraines or infections. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea (Choice D) could be suggestive of appendicitis rather than acute pancreatitis.
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