Nursing Elites

1. The urinary drainage of a client with continuous bladder irrigation is becoming increasingly red. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase the irrigation rate
• B. Lower the head of the bed
• C. Milk the catheter tubing
• D. Evaluate for fluid overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing the irrigation rate can help clear any blood clots and reduce the redness in the urinary drainage. This intervention aims to improve the flushing of the bladder and potentially resolve the issue. Lowering the head of the bed would not directly address the red urinary drainage. Milking the catheter tubing is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the catheter or bladder, leading to further complications. While evaluating for fluid overload is an important nursing consideration, it does not directly address the immediate concern of redness in the urinary drainage, which requires a focused intervention to clear any blockages or clots in the system.

2. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
• B. Weight the client every morning
• C. Maintain accurate intake and output
• D. Administer prescribed diuretic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

3. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?

• A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning
• B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
• C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
• D. A female client who is overzealous with her intake of simple carbohydrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.

4. A client with metastatic breast cancer refuses to participate in a clinical trial and further treatments. Her children ask the nurse to convince their mother to reconsider. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask the client if she fully understands the decision she has made with her children present.
• B. Discuss the success of clinical trials and ask the client to consider participating for one month.
• C. Explain to the family that they must accept their mother’s decision.
• D. Explore the client’s decision to refuse treatment and offer support.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to explore the client's decision to refuse treatment and offer support. In this situation, it is crucial for the nurse to respect the client's autonomy and decisions regarding her own health. By exploring the client's reasons for refusal, the nurse can better understand her perspective and provide appropriate support. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on questioning the client in front of her children, potentially pressuring her. Option B is inappropriate as it disregards the client's autonomy and tries to persuade her to participate. Option C is also incorrect as it dismisses the client's decision and fails to address the family's concerns in a supportive manner.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?

• A. Cramping muscular pain
• B. Worming movements of the tongue
• C. Decreased tendon reflexes
• D. Dry oral mucous membranes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.

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