HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. The healthcare provider receives a report on four clients who are complaining of increased pain. Which client requires immediate attention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Burning pain due to a Morton’s neuroma
- B. Sharp pain related to a crushed femur
- C. Paresthesia of fingers due to carpal tunnel syndrome
- D. Stinging pain related to plantar fasciitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sharp pain related to a crushed femur indicates a severe condition and potential serious complications that require immediate attention. Crushed femur can lead to severe bleeding, nerve damage, or compartment syndrome, which are critical and life-threatening. The other choices, although painful, are less likely to present immediate life-threatening issues. Morton’s neuroma, carpal tunnel syndrome, and plantar fasciitis are painful conditions but are not typically associated with urgent, life-threatening complications like a crushed femur.
2. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
- B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
- C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
- D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
3. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?
- A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
- B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
- C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
- D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.
4. A male client with hypercholesterolemia wants to change his diet to help reduce his cholesterol levels. Which breakfast items should the nurse encourage the client to eat? (Select all that apply)
- A. Sausage patties and eggs
- B. Whole wheat toast and jam
- C. Bagels and cream cheese
- D. Blackberries and oatmeal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct choices are whole wheat toast and jam (B) and blackberries and oatmeal (D). Whole wheat toast and blackberries are high in fiber, which can help lower cholesterol levels. Sausage patties and eggs (A) are high in saturated fats that can raise cholesterol levels. Bagels and cream cheese (C) are not as beneficial for cholesterol control compared to high-fiber options like whole wheat toast and blackberries.
5. To reduce the risk of symptoms exacerbation for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS), which instructions should the nurse include in the client’s discharge plan? (Select all that apply).
- A. Practice relaxation exercises
- B. Limit fluids to avoid bladder distention
- C. Space activities to allow for rest periods
- D. Avoid persons with infections
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge plan for a client with MS to reduce symptom exacerbation is practicing relaxation exercises. Relaxation exercises can help manage MS symptoms by reducing stress. Limiting fluids to avoid bladder distention is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential for overall health and helps prevent complications like urinary tract infections. While spacing activities to allow for rest periods can be beneficial for general well-being, it is not directly related to symptom exacerbation in MS. Avoiding persons with infections is important to prevent infections, but it is not specifically targeted at reducing MS symptom exacerbation.
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