Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Heart rate and blood pressure
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.

2. At 1130, the nurse assumes care of an adult client with diabetes mellitus who was admitted with an infected foot ulcer. After reviewing the client’s electronic health record, which priority nursing action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer insulin based on the sliding scale
• B. Assess the appearance of the foot wound
• C. Obtain antibiotic peak and trough levels
• D. Initiate hourly measurements of urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the appearance of the foot wound is the priority action in this scenario. This assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of infection progression or complications related to the foot ulcer, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Administering insulin based on the sliding scale (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the foot wound. Obtaining antibiotic peak and trough levels (Choice C) is relevant but not as immediate as assessing the wound for signs of infection. Initiating hourly measurements of urine output (Choice D) is not the priority when compared to assessing the foot wound in a client with an infected foot ulcer.

3. A 3-year-old boy was successfully toilet trained prior to his admission to the hospital for injuries sustained from a fall. His parents are very concerned that the child has regressed in his toileting behaviors. Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Children usually resume their toileting behaviors when they leave the hospital
• B. A retraining program will need to be initiated when the child returns home
• C. Diapering will be provided since hospitalization is stressful to preschoolers
• D. A potty chair should be brought from home so he can maintain his toileting skills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Children often regress in toileting behaviors during hospitalization due to stress and changes in routine. However, they usually resume normal behaviors once they are discharged and back in their familiar environment. Providing reassurance to the parents that the child is likely to return to his previous toileting habits after leaving the hospital can help alleviate their concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the normal pattern of behavior regression and recovery in toileting skills associated with hospitalization.

4. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

5. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?

• A. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight
• B. Altered mental status and tachypnea
• C. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity
• D. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.

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