HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.
2. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
- A. Moist mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
3. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
- B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
- C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
- D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.
4. The client who is to avoid any weight-bearing on the left leg is using a 3-point crutch gait for ambulation. What is the best action for the nurse to initiate?
- A. Encourage continued use of the 3-point crutch gait by the client
- B. Encourage the client to use a wheelchair for mobility
- C. Instruct the client in the use of a 4-point crutch gait
- D. Instruct the client in the use of a 2-point crutch gait
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client needs to avoid weight-bearing on the left leg. A 4-point crutch gait involves using both crutches and both legs, making it more appropriate for weight-bearing restrictions. Encouraging the use of a 3-point gait (choice A) would not provide adequate support for the client's condition. While using a wheelchair (choice B) could be an option, instructing the client in a 4-point crutch gait would promote mobility while adhering to weight-bearing restrictions. A 2-point crutch gait (choice D) involves using both crutches and one leg, which is not suitable for avoiding weight-bearing on the left leg.
5. A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain that the symptoms are caused by liver damage and can be managed
- B. Obtain a PRN prescription for an analgesic that the client can use for symptom relief
- C. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply oil-based lotion after soaking
- D. Suggest that the client take brief showers and apply oil-based lotion after showering
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cooler water and oil-based lotion can help relieve pruritus and improve comfort in clients with cirrhosis experiencing jaundice and pruritus. Hot baths can exacerbate itching, so it is important to suggest cooler showers instead. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms like pruritus can be managed. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention for pruritus related to liver disease. Choice C suggests the use of calamine lotion, which may not be as effective as oil-based lotion for relieving pruritus in this case.
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