HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.
2. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?
- A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
- B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
- C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
- D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.
3. A child with heart failure (HF) is taking digitalis. Which sign indicates to the nurse that the child may be experiencing digitalis toxicity?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Vomiting
- D. Muscle cramps
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting is a common sign of digitalis toxicity and should be closely monitored. While tachycardia is a common sign of heart failure, it is not typically associated with digitalis toxicity (Choice A). Dyspnea (Choice B) and muscle cramps (Choice D) are not specific signs of digitalis toxicity and can be present in other conditions. Therefore, the presence of vomiting should raise concerns about digitalis toxicity in the child with heart failure.
4. A nurse who works in the nursery is attending the vaginal delivery of a term infant. What action should the nurse complete before leaving the delivery room?
- A. Obtain the infant's vital signs.
- B. Observe the infant latching onto the breast.
- C. Administer a vitamin K injection.
- D. Place the ID bands on the infant and mother.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing ID bands on the infant and mother is crucial to ensure correct identification and prevent mix-ups. This step is essential for maintaining proper identification of the newborn and the mother, facilitating safe care delivery. Before leaving the delivery room, ensuring proper identification is a priority to prevent any errors. Obtaining the infant's vital signs may be important but does not take precedence over ensuring correct identification. Observing the infant latching onto the breast is crucial for breastfeeding initiation but can be done after proper identification. Administering a vitamin K injection is also important but should not delay the immediate identification process.
5. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?
- A. Note date and time of the behavior.
- B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
- C. Plan for scheduled break times.
- D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.
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