HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.
2. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
- A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
- B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
- C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
- D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.
3. A young female adult wanders into the Emergency Department. She is disheveled and confused and states, 'My date must have put something in my drink. He took my car, and I think he raped me. I don't exactly remember, but I know he hurt me.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Did you try to resist or fight back when you felt uncomfortable?
- B. He hurt you? Can you elaborate on what happened?
- C. It is okay to cry, but first, let's address your injuries and the situation.
- D. Yes, I can see. Tell me more about what you remember.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the patient to share more about what she remembers. This approach helps gather crucial information, supports the patient in a non-judgmental manner, and allows the nurse to provide appropriate care. Choice A has been revised to be more sensitive by asking about resistance when feeling uncomfortable rather than placing blame. Choice B has been adjusted to show empathy and request more details without questioning the patient's account. Choice C, although empathetic, does not address the immediate need to collect information and support the patient.
4. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
- A. Moist mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
5. After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bilateral Wheezing
- B. Urticaria
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urticaria. An itchy rash following a change in detergent may indicate an allergic reaction, specifically urticaria (hives), which requires immediate attention. Urticaria can be a sign of a severe allergic reaction, such as anaphylaxis. Bilateral wheezing (choice A) may suggest respiratory issues like asthma but is not directly related to the skin rash. Peripheral edema (choice C) and elevated blood pressure (choice D) are not typically associated with an allergic reaction to laundry detergent and would not be the priority assessment findings in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access