HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.
2. A client with metastatic breast cancer refuses to participate in a clinical trial and further treatments. Her children ask the nurse to convince their mother to reconsider. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask the client if she fully understands the decision she has made with her children present.
- B. Discuss the success of clinical trials and ask the client to consider participating for one month.
- C. Explain to the family that they must accept their mother’s decision.
- D. Explore the client’s decision to refuse treatment and offer support.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to explore the client's decision to refuse treatment and offer support. In this situation, it is crucial for the nurse to respect the client's autonomy and decisions regarding her own health. By exploring the client's reasons for refusal, the nurse can better understand her perspective and provide appropriate support. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on questioning the client in front of her children, potentially pressuring her. Option B is inappropriate as it disregards the client's autonomy and tries to persuade her to participate. Option C is also incorrect as it dismisses the client's decision and fails to address the family's concerns in a supportive manner.
3. To evaluate the medication’s effectiveness in a client with a respiratory tract infection, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. White blood cell (WBC) count
- B. Sputum culture and sensitivity
- C. Droplet precautions
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell (WBC) count. Monitoring the WBC count helps assess the overall response to infection and the effectiveness of the antibiotic. Sputum culture and sensitivity (choice B) are also important to confirm if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogen. Choices C and D, droplet precautions and protective environment, are not laboratory values but rather infection control measures that do not directly evaluate the medication's effectiveness in treating the infection.
4. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?
- A. Note date and time of the behavior.
- B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
- C. Plan for scheduled break times.
- D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.
5. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?
- A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
- C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- D. Atenolol (Tenormin)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.
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