Nursing Elites

1. When taking a health history of a client admitted with acute pancreatitis, which client complaint should be expected?

• A. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain
• B. Severe headache and sweating all the time
• C. Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal
• D. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal.' This symptom is characteristic of acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas, which often presents with severe pain in the mid-epigastric region that may worsen after eating. Choices A, B, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain (Choice A) may be more indicative of other conditions like diverticulitis. Severe headache and sweating (Choice B) are commonly seen in conditions like migraines or infections. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea (Choice D) could be suggestive of appendicitis rather than acute pancreatitis.

2. What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?

• A. Assess IV site frequently for signs of extravasation
• B. Monitor capillary refill distal to the infusion site
• C. Apply a topical anesthetic at the infusion site for burning
• D. Explain that temporary burning at the IV site may occur

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm is to assess the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation. Vesicants are agents that can cause tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Monitoring for signs of extravasation such as swelling, pain, or redness is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure prompt intervention if extravasation occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring capillary refill, applying a topical anesthetic for burning, and explaining temporary burning do not directly address the risk of extravasation associated with vesicant chemotherapeutic agents.

3. A 41-week gestation primigravida woman is admitted to labor and delivery for induction of labor. What finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before initiating the infusion of oxytocin?

• A. Fetal heart tones located in the upper right quadrant
• B. Biophysical profile results showing oligohydramnios
• C. Regular contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• D. Sterile vaginal exam revealing 3 cm dilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) is a significant concern before starting oxytocin and should be reported to ensure safe labor induction. This finding can indicate potential fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. Fetal heart tones located in a specific quadrant, regular contractions, and cervical dilation are common assessments during labor but are not as critical as oligohydramnios in this scenario.

4. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client’s statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram.
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure.
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends.
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is recommended because breasts are least tender and swollen at this point, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, it is not the immediate action needed based on the client's statements. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE technique timing needs adjustment rather than an in-depth review by a nurse practitioner. Choice D is incorrect because the client should modify the timing of the BSE for better effectiveness.

5. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home”. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.

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