HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Measure the client's cardiac output
- B. Assess neurological status q15 min
- C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
- D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.
2. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?
- A. Mechanical ventilation
- B. Platelet transfusion
- C. Loop diuretic therapy
- D. Cyanocobalamin administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.
3. Three hours following a right carotid endarterectomy, the nurse notes a moderate amount of bloody drainage on the client’s dressing. Which additional assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Sore throat when swallowing
- B. Tongue deviation to the left
- C. Palpable temporal pulses
- D. Temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tongue deviation to the left is the correct answer. It could indicate a complication such as nerve injury or hematoma, which requires immediate attention. A sore throat when swallowing may be expected postoperatively but does not indicate an immediate complication. Palpable temporal pulses are a normal finding and do not require immediate intervention. A temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C) is slightly elevated but does not suggest a critical issue related to the surgery.
4. After medicating the client for pain and collecting granules and stones from strained urine, which action is most important for the nurse to implement next?
- A. Send the calculi for laboratory analysis of stone composition.
- B. Evaluate the client for persistent pain.
- C. Assess the clarity of urine.
- D. Encourage high fluid intake to produce urine output of 2L/day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sending the calculi for analysis is crucial in determining the type of stone present. Identifying the stone composition helps in developing an effective treatment plan and preventive measures to avoid future episodes of urolithiasis. This step is essential in providing targeted care for the client. Options B, C, and D are not the most important actions at this point. While evaluating for persistent pain is essential, determining the stone composition takes precedence to guide appropriate interventions.
5. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?
- A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
- B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
- C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
- D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.
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