a woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetricians office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician’s office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Some antianxiety medications are considered safe for use while breastfeeding, and the nurse should provide this information to alleviate the woman's concerns. Choice A has been corrected to focus on the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding, which is more accurate. Choice B suggests stress-relieving alternatives, which may help but do not address the need for antianxiety medication if required. Choice D is incorrect because it minimizes the woman's concerns by dismissing her increased anxiety as a normal response.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with Addison's disease who is weak, dizzy, disoriented, and has dry oral mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and sunken eyes. Vital signs are blood pressure 94/44, heart rate 123 beats/minute, respiration 22 breaths/minute. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client’s symptoms suggest possible adrenal crisis or hypoglycemia. Checking glucose is a priority to rule out hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention. The client is presenting with symptoms indicative of hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Assessing extremity strength, reporting sodium levels, or measuring the cardiac QRS complex are not the most urgent actions in this scenario.

3. Several months after a foot injury, an adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will 'finally go away.' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.' In cases of chronic neuropathic pain, complete resolution is often not achievable. Therefore, the most appropriate approach is to help the client develop strategies to manage the pain effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it may give false hope of immediate resolution, which is unlikely with neuropathic pain. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's need for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on functional ability assessment, which is not the priority when addressing the client's pain concerns.

4. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.

5. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.

Similar Questions

When should the nurse conduct an Allen’s test?
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Before administering an intramuscular injection, the nurse's finger is stuck with the needle. Which action should the nurse take?
An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi’s Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?
The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the start of the procedure?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses