HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
- A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
- B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
- C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
- D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Facilitating a meeting for the nurses to identify ways of working together is the best action for the nurse manager. This approach promotes open communication, collaboration, and allows both nurses to express their concerns and perspectives. Option A may not address the underlying issues between the nurses and involving a mental health consultant may not be necessary at this stage. Option B, while listening is important, may not fully resolve the conflict without a structured plan. Option C focuses solely on the senior nurse without involving the new graduate in resolving the situation.
2. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Monitor daily weights
- B. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
- C. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide a client with chronic kidney disease is to report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day. This is crucial because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common issue in kidney disease. Monitoring daily weights, as in option A, is important but not as critical as reporting sudden weight gain. Option B, limiting fluid intake, is a general recommendation for kidney disease but not the most important aspect in this scenario. Option D, increasing protein intake, is not appropriate as excessive protein intake can be harmful for clients with kidney disease.
3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. It dissolves blood clots
- B. It prevents the blood from clotting
- C. It thins the blood
- D. It decreases the risk of infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
- B. Administer a glucagon injection
- C. Provide a snack with protein
- D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. Carbohydrate intake helps to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in cases of hypoglycemia. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is not the initial treatment for mild hypoglycemia; it is typically used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to consume oral carbohydrates. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for hypoglycemia; immediate carbohydrate intake is necessary to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be appropriate after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to address the low blood glucose levels by administering carbohydrates first.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. The nurse notes that there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Check for kinks in the tubing
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Replace the chest tube drainage system
- D. Reinforce the chest tube dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system is to notify the healthcare provider. Continuous bubbling indicates a possible air leak, and the healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess the situation and take appropriate actions. Checking for kinks in the tubing (Choice A) may be done initially but is not the priority when continuous bubbling is present. Replacing the chest tube drainage system (Choice C) and reinforcing the chest tube dressing (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed in response to continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access