a nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy which intervention should the nurse include to manage the clients nausea
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting. By administering the antiemetic before meals, the nurse can help prevent the onset of nausea, allowing the client to eat more comfortably. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice B) is important for maintaining oral hygiene but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) and offering clear liquids (Choice D) are generally recommended for clients experiencing nausea, but administering an antiemetic is a more targeted approach to specifically address and manage the symptom.

2. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0800 dose of 20 units of Humulin R to an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes. The mother comments that her daughter is a very picky eater and many times does not eat meals. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the girl if she will be eating her breakfast this morning. This is important to determine if the child will be consuming food, which is crucial information before administering insulin. If the child does not plan to eat, administering the full dose of insulin may lead to hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as administering the insulin without knowing if the child will eat can be dangerous. Choice C is not the first intervention because the immediate concern is the child's meal intake. Choice D, while important, is not the first step in this situation.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.

5. Which assessment finding should indicate to the nurse that a client with arterial hypertension is experiencing a cardiac complication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, complaints of shortness of breath on exertion. This symptom is indicative of heart failure, a common cardiac complication of arterial hypertension. Shortness of breath on exertion is often due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because complaints of an occipital headache, a palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally, and a blood pressure of 160/90 do not specifically indicate a cardiac complication in a client with arterial hypertension.

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