Nursing Elites

1. A client is taught how to collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which statement indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. I should keep the urine specimen refrigerated.
• B. I need to start the collection in the morning after my first void.
• C. I will collect the urine for 24 hours and keep it on ice.
• D. I will start collecting the urine after discarding my first morning specimen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct way to collect a 24-hour urine specimen is to discard the first morning void and then start the collection. Choice A is incorrect because refrigeration is not typically necessary for a 24-hour urine specimen. Choice B is incorrect as the client needs to discard the first void. Choice C is incorrect; while collecting urine for 24 hours is correct, keeping it on ice is not standard procedure.

2. A 14-year-old girl with asthma complains of feeling nervous and jittery after a respiratory therapy bronchodilator treatment. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide to this adolescent?

• A. Nervousness should disappear when hypoxia is relieved after several bronchodilator treatments
• B. Tremors result from the rapid dilation of the bronchioles and an increased heart rate
• C. A fast heart rate and jitteriness are side effects of the bronchodilator treatment containing albuterol
• D. Excessive coughing, which causes tachypnea and anxiety, result from the use of bronchodilators

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a fast heart rate and jitteriness are common side effects of bronchodilators like albuterol. Choice A is incorrect as nervousness is more likely a side effect of the medication than solely related to hypoxia. Choice B is incorrect as it provides a partial explanation focusing only on tremors and heart rate, not mentioning jitteriness. Choice D is incorrect because excessive coughing and tachypnea are not typically associated with bronchodilator use; instead, they may indicate inadequate relief or other issues.

3. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?

• A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level
• B. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques
• C. Determine the client's history of lung disease
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation level is crucial when a nurse identifies a barrel chest. A barrel chest is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which can lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring the oxygen saturation level will provide immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques, determining lung disease history, and obtaining arterial blood gas samples are important interventions but assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence in this scenario due to its direct impact on the client's respiratory function.

4. The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign to this newly graduated practical nurse?

• A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
• B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
• C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
• D. Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with a stable infection requires less supervision and is suitable for the new nurse. Choice B involves insulin administration for a client with poorly controlled diabetes, which may require more experience and supervision. Choice C involves a newly admitted patient with a head injury who requires frequent assessments, indicating a need for close monitoring. Choice D involves a patient receiving IV heparin, which requires precise monitoring and adjustment based on protocol, making it a higher-risk assignment for a new nurse without close supervision.

5. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

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