HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Perform chest physiotherapy
- C. Elevate the head of the bed
- D. Obtain a sputum specimen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client with a stage III pressure ulcer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Reposition the client every 2 hours
- B. Cleanse the ulcer with normal saline
- C. Apply a moisture-retentive dressing
- D. Measure the ulcer's depth and diameter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the ulcer's depth and diameter. This intervention is crucial as it helps monitor healing progress and evaluate the effectiveness of the care plan. Measuring the ulcer provides valuable information about the wound's improvement or deterioration. Repositioning the client every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for preventing further skin breakdown but may not be the priority in this case. Cleansing the ulcer with normal saline (Choice B) is essential for wound care but not the most crucial intervention at this stage. Applying a moisture-retentive dressing (Choice C) can promote healing, but assessing the ulcer's dimensions is more critical for monitoring progress.
3. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?
- A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
- B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
- C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
- D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.
4. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?
- A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
- B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
- C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
- D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Maintain the client on bed rest
- B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the legs
- C. Encourage early ambulation
- D. Massage the legs daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to encourage early ambulation. Early ambulation helps prevent DVT by promoting circulation, reducing stasis, and preventing blood clot formation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (Choice A) would increase the risk of DVT due to decreased mobility. Applying warm, moist compresses to the legs (Choice B) can be beneficial for other conditions but does not directly prevent DVT. Massaging the legs daily (Choice D) can dislodge a blood clot, leading to serious complications in a client at risk for DVT.
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