Nursing Elites

1. A client newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid drinking milk
• B. Eat three large meals a day
• C. Avoid eating spicy foods
• D. Increase fluid intake with meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing stomach acid production. Avoiding spicy foods can help reduce discomfort and prevent further irritation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is not advised for GERD as it can trigger acid production. Eating three large meals a day can put pressure on the stomach, worsening symptoms. Increasing fluid intake with meals can lead to bloating and worsen GERD symptoms by causing the stomach to expand, pushing more acid into the esophagus.

2. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
• B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
• C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
• D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, 'What do you think you're doing?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.
• B. This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.
• C. Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?
• D. You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's concern by explaining that the shot will help relieve the pain in his feet, which is a symptom of peripheral neuritis. This response shows empathy and provides the client with a clear benefit of receiving the medication. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the client's immediate concern about the injection and its purpose, making them less suitable responses. Choice A focuses on the client's behavior rather than the therapeutic effect of the injection. Choice C shifts the responsibility to the client to administer the shot, which may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D mentions feeling calmer and less jittery, which is not directly related to the client's current complaint of pain in the feet.

5. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

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