Nursing Elites

1. A client newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid drinking milk
• B. Eat three large meals a day
• C. Avoid eating spicy foods
• D. Increase fluid intake with meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing stomach acid production. Avoiding spicy foods can help reduce discomfort and prevent further irritation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is not advised for GERD as it can trigger acid production. Eating three large meals a day can put pressure on the stomach, worsening symptoms. Increasing fluid intake with meals can lead to bloating and worsen GERD symptoms by causing the stomach to expand, pushing more acid into the esophagus.

2. Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
• B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
• D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods. Oxygen toxicity can occur when high levels of oxygen are given for a prolonged period. It is important to monitor and adjust the oxygen levels as needed to prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because administering a sedative to slow the respiratory rate does not directly prevent oxygen toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as removing the nasal cannula during the night can compromise the client's oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect as running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity; instead, it may introduce risks associated with the hydration source.

3. The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign to this newly graduated practical nurse?

• A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
• B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
• C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
• D. Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with a stable infection requires less supervision and is suitable for the new nurse. Choice B involves insulin administration for a client with poorly controlled diabetes, which may require more experience and supervision. Choice C involves a newly admitted patient with a head injury who requires frequent assessments, indicating a need for close monitoring. Choice D involves a patient receiving IV heparin, which requires precise monitoring and adjustment based on protocol, making it a higher-risk assignment for a new nurse without close supervision.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory status
• B. Teach the client how to use the PCA pump
• C. Evaluate the client's pain level
• D. Assess the client's pain level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory status. When administering opioids like morphine sulfate via a PCA pump, it is crucial to closely monitor the client's respiratory status to detect signs of respiratory depression early. This is important for ensuring the client's safety while receiving pain management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while teaching the client to use the PCA pump and assessing or evaluating their pain level are essential aspects of care, monitoring respiratory status takes precedence due to the potential risks associated with opioid use.

5. A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

• A. Bladder distention
• B. Serum albumin level
• C. Abdominal girth
• D. Breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.

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