Nursing Elites

1. A client newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid drinking milk
• B. Eat three large meals a day
• C. Avoid eating spicy foods
• D. Increase fluid intake with meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing stomach acid production. Avoiding spicy foods can help reduce discomfort and prevent further irritation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is not advised for GERD as it can trigger acid production. Eating three large meals a day can put pressure on the stomach, worsening symptoms. Increasing fluid intake with meals can lead to bloating and worsen GERD symptoms by causing the stomach to expand, pushing more acid into the esophagus.

2. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

3. A client is taught how to collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which statement indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. I should keep the urine specimen refrigerated.
• B. I need to start the collection in the morning after my first void.
• C. I will collect the urine for 24 hours and keep it on ice.
• D. I will start collecting the urine after discarding my first morning specimen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct way to collect a 24-hour urine specimen is to discard the first morning void and then start the collection. Choice A is incorrect because refrigeration is not typically necessary for a 24-hour urine specimen. Choice B is incorrect as the client needs to discard the first void. Choice C is incorrect; while collecting urine for 24 hours is correct, keeping it on ice is not standard procedure.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, 'What do you think you're doing?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.
• B. This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.
• C. Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?
• D. You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's concern by explaining that the shot will help relieve the pain in his feet, which is a symptom of peripheral neuritis. This response shows empathy and provides the client with a clear benefit of receiving the medication. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the client's immediate concern about the injection and its purpose, making them less suitable responses. Choice A focuses on the client's behavior rather than the therapeutic effect of the injection. Choice C shifts the responsibility to the client to administer the shot, which may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D mentions feeling calmer and less jittery, which is not directly related to the client's current complaint of pain in the feet.

5. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

• A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
• B. Excess fluid volume
• C. Fatigue
• D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

Similar Questions