Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the nasal cannula
• B. Lower the oxygen rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.

2. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Limit sodium intake
• D. Take the medication at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

3. The client is being taught how to take alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis treatment. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at bedtime
• B. I will need to take this medication for at least 3 years
• C. I should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the medication
• D. I should take this medication with a full glass of water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking Fosamax at bedtime is incorrect. It should be taken in the morning with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice B is correct; alendronate is typically taken for several years to treat osteoporosis. Choice C is correct as remaining upright for 30 minutes after taking Fosamax helps prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is also correct as taking alendronate with a full glass of water is necessary to ensure proper absorption.

4. The nurse preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output
• B. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis
• D. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early signs of shock. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain perfusion, mental status changes can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion, and low urine output reflects poor renal perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not typical findings in the early stages of shock. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are more indicative of late-stage shock. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in various conditions but are not specific early signs of shock.

5. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

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