a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula the client develops respiratory d
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.

2. A male client tells the nurse, 'I am so stressed because I am expected to achieve excellence in everything. My job, my marriage, and my children must be perfect!' Which coping response should the nurse recognize that the client is using?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rationalization. Rationalization is a defense mechanism where the client justifies their stress and need for perfection by creating logical explanations or excuses. In this case, the client is rationalizing their stress by believing that everything in their life must be perfect. Repression (choice A) involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts or feelings. Sublimation (choice B) is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Displacement (choice D) involves transferring emotions from one target to another.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.

4. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

5. A client is receiving a low dose of dopamine (Intropin) IV for the treatment of hypotension. Which indicator reflects that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased blood pressure is the desired effect of administering dopamine (Intropin) to treat hypotension. Dopamine acts by stimulating adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. This results in an elevation of blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly reflect the therapeutic action of dopamine in treating hypotension. Increased heart rate may indicate the body compensating for low blood pressure, increased urinary output is more related to kidney function, and increased respiratory rate is often seen in response to respiratory issues, not the action of dopamine on hypotension.

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