a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula the client develops respiratory d
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.

2. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

4. A client who is gravida 1, para 0, is admitted to the birthing suite in early labor and requests pain relief. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed. Since the client is in early labor and requesting pain relief, opioids are commonly used to provide effective pain relief during labor. Encouraging distraction or teaching relaxation techniques may not be sufficient for pain management during labor, especially in the early stages when the pain intensity can increase rapidly. Determining the pain level and location is important but administering the prescribed opioid is the most appropriate action to address the client's request for pain relief.

5. A 7-year-old with cystic fibrosis (CF) has received instructions about home care. Which statement made by the child's mother indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A cough at all times is not normal in a child with cystic fibrosis (CF) and indicates the need for further teaching on CF management. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements in managing CF: taking pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks, using a bronchodilator daily, and maintaining a high-protein and high-calorie dietary intake are all appropriate for a child with CF.

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