while assessing a client who is experiencing cheyne stokes respirations the nurse observes periods of apnea what action should the nurse implement
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

2. The nurse working in an emergency center collects physical evidence 6 hours following a reported sexual assault. After placing the samples in sealed containers, which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintaining possession of the evidence collection kit at all times until submitted to law enforcement is crucial to ensure the integrity of the chain of custody. This step helps prevent tampering or contamination of the evidence, which is vital for the legal process. Providing discharge instructions for medications, documenting sample characteristics, and assisting the client with personal care are important aspects of care but not the immediate priority when handling forensic evidence in a sexual assault case.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low serum potassium level increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with low potassium levels because potassium is crucial for proper heart function. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate an increased risk of digoxin toxicity.

4. While teaching a group of adults about health promotion activities, a nurse identifies a behavior that poses the most significant risk factor for the development of skin cancer. Which behavior should the nurse address?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using tanning beds is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from tanning beds damages the skin and increases the risk of skin cancer. Consuming a high-fat diet, smoking cigarettes, and drinking alcohol are unhealthy behaviors but are not directly linked to the development of skin cancer like UV exposure from tanning beds.

5. A client is receiving a low dose of dopamine (Intropin) IV for the treatment of hypotension. Which indicator reflects that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased blood pressure is the desired effect of administering dopamine (Intropin) to treat hypotension. Dopamine acts by stimulating adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. This results in an elevation of blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly reflect the therapeutic action of dopamine in treating hypotension. Increased heart rate may indicate the body compensating for low blood pressure, increased urinary output is more related to kidney function, and increased respiratory rate is often seen in response to respiratory issues, not the action of dopamine on hypotension.

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