HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. The mother of a 6-year-old anemic boy is taught by the nurse to give iron supplements. Which statement indicates that the mother understands the proper administration of iron?
- A. The iron tablets will be absorbed between meals, on an empty stomach
- B. I should give the iron tablets with his milk and cereal each morning
- C. Iron preparations can be taken with antibiotics if he develops an infection
- D. The iron tablets may cause him to sunburn more easily so he should wear sunscreen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach, which maximizes their effectiveness. Giving iron tablets with milk or calcium-rich foods, as mentioned in choice B, should be avoided as they can decrease iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because iron preparations should not be taken with antibiotics due to potential interactions. Choice D is also incorrect as iron tablets do not cause an increased risk of sunburn, so sunscreen is not necessary specifically due to iron supplementation.
2. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
- B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
- C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
- D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.
3. The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a speech therapy consult
- B. Elevate the head of the bed
- C. Check the client's lung sounds
- D. Implement aspiration precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps prevent aspiration in clients with swallowing difficulties by reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the airway. While obtaining a speech therapy consult (Choice A) is important, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety by positioning them properly. Checking the client's lung sounds (Choice C) and implementing aspiration precautions (Choice D) are also essential steps but should follow the immediate intervention of elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.
4. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?
- A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
- B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
- C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
- D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.
5. When the nurse enters the room to change the dressing of a male client with cancer, he asks, 'Have you ever been with someone when they died?' What is the nurse's best response to him?
- A. Yes, I have. Do you have some questions about dying?
- B. Several times. Now, let's get your dressing changed.
- C. A few times. It was peaceful and there was no pain.
- D. Yes, but you're doing great. Are you concerned about dying?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's question and open the door for further discussion by asking if they have questions about dying. This approach allows the nurse to address the client's concerns and fears, promoting open communication and providing emotional support. Choices B and C do not encourage further dialogue about the client's feelings and concerns regarding death. Choice D briefly acknowledges the question but does not actively invite the client to express their thoughts and emotions regarding dying.
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