HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the child in a mist tent
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
- D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.
2. When the nurse enters the room to change the dressing of a male client with cancer, he asks, 'Have you ever been with someone when they died?' What is the nurse's best response to him?
- A. Yes, I have. Do you have some questions about dying?
- B. Several times. Now, let's get your dressing changed.
- C. A few times. It was peaceful and there was no pain.
- D. Yes, but you're doing great. Are you concerned about dying?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's question and open the door for further discussion by asking if they have questions about dying. This approach allows the nurse to address the client's concerns and fears, promoting open communication and providing emotional support. Choices B and C do not encourage further dialogue about the client's feelings and concerns regarding death. Choice D briefly acknowledges the question but does not actively invite the client to express their thoughts and emotions regarding dying.
3. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
- B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
- C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
- D. Suction the client's oropharynx
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
- B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
- C. Check the client's blood pressure
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.
5. The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer pain medication
- D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This action helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after providing immediate wound care. Option C, administering pain medication, is not the priority when there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. Option D, covering the wound with an abdominal binder, is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the protruding bowel and potential risk for infection.
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