a 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia drooling fever of 102f and stridor which intervention should the nurse implement fi
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

2. The nurse observes a client in a wheelchair with a vest restraint in place. What nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the need for continued restraint. This is the most important nursing intervention as it ensures the client's safety and autonomy. Checking for urinary incontinence (Choice B) may be important but is not the priority in this situation. Determining skin integrity under the vest (Choice C) is essential but not as crucial as assessing the need for continued restraint. Performing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for client mobility but not the priority when a restraint is in place.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

4. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.

5. The mother of a 6-year-old anemic boy is taught by the nurse to give iron supplements. Which statement indicates that the mother understands the proper administration of iron?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach, which maximizes their effectiveness. Giving iron tablets with milk or calcium-rich foods, as mentioned in choice B, should be avoided as they can decrease iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because iron preparations should not be taken with antibiotics due to potential interactions. Choice D is also incorrect as iron tablets do not cause an increased risk of sunburn, so sunscreen is not necessary specifically due to iron supplementation.

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