Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the child in a mist tent
• B. Obtain a sputum culture
• C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
• D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

2. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?

• A. Do not allow the child to return to school for at least one month
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site
• C. Monitor the child's temperature and report any elevation
• D. Observe for any changes in the child's color or energy level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.

3. A client who is 32-weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?

• A. Wear a tight abdominal binder at all times
• B. Take a daily laxative to prevent constipation
• C. Refrain from sexual intercourse until your next appointment
• D. Restrict fluids to less than 1000 ml per day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Refraining from sexual intercourse helps prevent complications with partial placenta previa.

4. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter in a female client. Which action should the nurse take to maintain sterile technique?

• A. Apply sterile gloves before inserting the catheter
• B. Use sterile gloves to insert the catheter
• C. Clean the urinary meatus with an antiseptic solution
• D. Place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using sterile gloves to insert the catheter is crucial to maintaining sterile technique. Sterile gloves help prevent the introduction of microorganisms during the insertion process. Applying sterile gloves before cleansing the perineal area (Choice A) is important but not specific to maintaining sterility during catheter insertion. Cleaning the urinary meatus with an antiseptic solution (Choice C) is a step in the catheterization process but does not solely ensure sterile technique. Placing the drainage bag above the level of the bladder (Choice D) is incorrect; the bag should be placed below the level of the bladder to facilitate urine drainage.

5. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
• B. Increased serum ammonia levels
• C. Decreased white blood cell count
• D. Soft, formed stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.

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