HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the child in a mist tent
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
- D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.
2. Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel
- B. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket
- C. Record the findings on the flow sheet
- D. Check the vital signs in 15 minutes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to record the findings on the flow sheet. These assessment findings are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. The axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate of 42 breaths/min are all expected in a newborn. No immediate intervention is needed, so the nurse should document these normal findings for future reference. Placing a pulse oximeter on the heel or swaddling the infant in a warm blanket is not indicated as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the vital signs in 15 minutes is unnecessary since the current findings are normal.
3. A client who had a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client's current health status?
- A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
- B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
- C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
- D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left side paralysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for this client is 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' The client's Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip is a clear indication of impaired skin integrity resulting from altered circulation and pressure due to immobility. Choice A is incorrect because the client already has a pressure ulcer, indicating an actual impairment rather than a risk. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this case. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses solely on the paralysis and not the actual skin integrity issue.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, 'What do you think you're doing?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.
- B. This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.
- C. Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?
- D. You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's concern by explaining that the shot will help relieve the pain in his feet, which is a symptom of peripheral neuritis. This response shows empathy and provides the client with a clear benefit of receiving the medication. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the client's immediate concern about the injection and its purpose, making them less suitable responses. Choice A focuses on the client's behavior rather than the therapeutic effect of the injection. Choice C shifts the responsibility to the client to administer the shot, which may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D mentions feeling calmer and less jittery, which is not directly related to the client's current complaint of pain in the feet.
5. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for the treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?
- A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
- B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
- C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
- D. Monitor serum creatinine levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can potentially impact kidney function, making it essential to monitor serum creatinine levels to assess renal function. Option A, initiating cardiac telemetry monitoring, is not directly related to acyclovir administration for herpes zoster. Option B, maintaining continuous pulse oximetry, is more relevant in assessing respiratory status rather than monitoring for acyclovir-related side effects. Option C, performing capillary glucose measurements, is not directly associated with acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster.
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