Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the child in a mist tent
• B. Obtain a sputum culture
• C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
• D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?

• A. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
• D. White blood cell count of 7000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.

3. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a female client who has just been diagnosed with trichomoniasis?

• A. Avoid douching
• B. Treat sexual partner(s) concurrently
• C. Avoid using moist washcloths when bathing
• D. Postpone becoming pregnant until the infection is treated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a female client diagnosed with trichomoniasis is to treat sexual partner(s) concurrently. This is crucial to prevent reinfection and the spread of the infection. Choice A, avoiding douching, is generally recommended for vaginal health but is not the most critical instruction in this case. Choice C, avoiding moist washcloths when bathing, is not directly related to the transmission or treatment of trichomoniasis. Choice D, postponing pregnancy until the infection is treated, is important but treating sexual partners concurrently takes precedence to prevent reinfection.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer pain medication
• D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing and preventing further complications. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after addressing the wound. Administering pain medication (Option C) may be necessary but is not the first action to take in this emergency situation. Covering the wound with an abdominal binder (Option D) is not appropriate and may cause further harm by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.

5. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the IO infusion
• B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
• C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site raise concerns for complications like compartment syndrome or extravasation. The priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IO infusion to prevent further harm to the client. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity with the IO site may delay addressing the potential serious complications. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate action to ensure client safety is to stop the infusion.

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