HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the child in a mist tent
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
- D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.
2. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
- A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
- B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
- C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
- D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Facilitating a meeting for the nurses to identify ways of working together is the best action for the nurse manager. This approach promotes open communication, collaboration, and allows both nurses to express their concerns and perspectives. Option A may not address the underlying issues between the nurses and involving a mental health consultant may not be necessary at this stage. Option B, while listening is important, may not fully resolve the conflict without a structured plan. Option C focuses solely on the senior nurse without involving the new graduate in resolving the situation.
3. A client admitted to the hospital for depression is escorted to a private room. Prior to leaving the room, what intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Explain the program's guidelines
- B. Search all personal belongings
- C. Initiate psychosocial assessment
- D. Review the healthcare provider's prescription
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Searching personal belongings is essential to ensure the safety of the client by preventing access to items that could be used for self-harm. While explaining the program's guidelines (Choice A) and initiating a psychosocial assessment (Choice C) are important aspects of care, the immediate concern in this situation is the safety of the client. Reviewing the healthcare provider's prescription (Choice D) is important for providing appropriate treatment but is not as urgent as ensuring the client's safety.
4. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?
- A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
- B. Excess fluid volume
- C. Fatigue
- D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.
5. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. Take analgesics regularly to reduce the pain
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
- C. Avoid weight-bearing until the injury heals
- D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is an aggressive cancer, and prompt treatment is crucial for improving prognosis. Option A is incorrect because while pain management is important, addressing the underlying cause (sarcoma) is the priority. Option B is not as critical as seeking treatment for the sarcoma itself. Option C is not the most important instruction as the primary concern is addressing the cancer diagnosis.
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