Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
• B. Provide frequent mouth care
• C. Encourage small, frequent meals
• D. Offer clear liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics help prevent or reduce nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Providing frequent mouth care (choice B) is important for managing oral mucositis but not specifically for nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice C) and offering clear liquids (choice D) are beneficial strategies for managing gastrointestinal side effects but may not be as effective in controlling nausea as administering antiemetics.

3. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
• B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
• C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
• D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. Carbohydrate intake helps to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in cases of hypoglycemia. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is not the initial treatment for mild hypoglycemia; it is typically used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to consume oral carbohydrates. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for hypoglycemia; immediate carbohydrate intake is necessary to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be appropriate after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to address the low blood glucose levels by administering carbohydrates first.

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