Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
• B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
• C. Check the client's blood pressure
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.

3. What assessment technique should the nurse use to monitor a client for a common untoward effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?

• A. Bladder palpation
• B. Inspection of the mouth
• C. Blood glucose monitoring
• D. Auscultation of breath sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inspection of the mouth. This assessment technique is crucial for monitoring gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect of phenytoin. Bladder palpation (choice A) is not relevant to monitoring for phenytoin's side effects. Blood glucose monitoring (choice C) is important for clients with diabetes but is not specifically related to phenytoin. Auscultation of breath sounds (choice D) is more relevant for assessing respiratory conditions, not side effects of phenytoin.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory status
• B. Teach the client how to use the PCA pump
• C. Evaluate the client's pain level
• D. Assess the client's pain level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory status. When administering opioids like morphine sulfate via a PCA pump, it is crucial to closely monitor the client's respiratory status to detect signs of respiratory depression early. This is important for ensuring the client's safety while receiving pain management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while teaching the client to use the PCA pump and assessing or evaluating their pain level are essential aspects of care, monitoring respiratory status takes precedence due to the potential risks associated with opioid use.

5. The nurse is planning care for a 2-year-old child who is scheduled for an infusion of immune globulin for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this child?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Risk for injury
• C. Altered oral mucous membranes
• D. Risk for fluid volume deficit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When caring for a child with ITP scheduled for immune globulin infusion, the highest priority is to prevent infection. This is crucial due to the risk of bleeding associated with ITP and the immunosuppression that can be caused by the condition and its treatment. The other options, such as 'Risk for injury,' 'Altered oral mucous membranes,' and 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' are not as high a priority as preventing infection in this particular situation.

Similar Questions