Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

2. The nurse is evaluating the health status of an older client. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Client reports decreased urine output
• B. Client reports loss of appetite
• C. Client reports pain in the lower back
• D. Client reports a persistent cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain in the lower back is a significant finding in an older client as it can indicate underlying issues such as kidney problems, spinal issues, or even aortic aneurysm. These conditions can be serious and require prompt medical attention. Decreased urine output (choice A) could indicate dehydration or kidney issues but is not as urgent as lower back pain. Loss of appetite (choice B) may be concerning but is not as critical as the potential life-threatening conditions associated with lower back pain. A persistent cough (choice D) is important to assess but is generally not as urgent as the potential serious implications of lower back pain in an older client.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml. How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours?

• A. 10 ml
• B. 12.5 ml
• C. 15 ml
• D. 17.5 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first, determine the total daily dose: 1.5 grams = 1500 mg. Since the medication is 200 mg/5 ml, for 1500 mg, the nurse needs to administer 1500/200 = 7.5 times the 5 ml dose. Therefore, 7.5 x 5 ml = 37.5 ml total daily dose. To administer this every 8 hours, divide 37.5 ml by 3 (8 hours intervals in a day) to get 12.5 ml to be administered every 8 hours. Choice A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation of the dose based on the prescription and the available concentration.

4. While teaching a group of adults about health promotion activities, a nurse identifies a behavior that poses the most significant risk factor for the development of skin cancer. Which behavior should the nurse address?

• A. Consuming a high-fat diet
• B. Using tanning beds
• C. Smoking cigarettes
• D. Drinking alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using tanning beds is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from tanning beds damages the skin and increases the risk of skin cancer. Consuming a high-fat diet, smoking cigarettes, and drinking alcohol are unhealthy behaviors but are not directly linked to the development of skin cancer like UV exposure from tanning beds.

5. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?

• A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
• B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
• C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
• D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.

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