Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Perform chest physiotherapy
• C. Elevate the head of the bed
• D. Obtain a sputum specimen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client in the late stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Impaired physical mobility
• B. Ineffective breathing pattern
• C. Impaired skin integrity
• D. Risk for infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority for a client in the late stage of ALS due to the significant risk of respiratory complications. As ALS progresses, the client may experience respiratory muscle weakness, leading to ineffective breathing patterns and potential respiratory failure. Addressing breathing difficulties promptly is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. While impaired physical mobility, impaired skin integrity, and risk for infection are also important concerns in ALS care, they are secondary to addressing the client's breathing difficulties, which take precedence to maintain physiological stability and prevent life-threatening consequences.

4. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.

5. The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign to this newly graduated practical nurse?

• A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
• B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
• C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
• D. Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with a stable infection requires less supervision and is suitable for the new nurse. Choice B involves insulin administration for a client with poorly controlled diabetes, which may require more experience and supervision. Choice C involves a newly admitted patient with a head injury who requires frequent assessments, indicating a need for close monitoring. Choice D involves a patient receiving IV heparin, which requires precise monitoring and adjustment based on protocol, making it a higher-risk assignment for a new nurse without close supervision.

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