Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

2. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

3. When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 min, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hr?

• A. 42
• B. 50
• C. 60
• D. 70

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, we first need to determine the frequency of contractions per hour. If contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, this corresponds to 20 to 30 contractions in an hour (60 minutes). The average is 25 contractions in an hour. The pump should be infusing 1 ml for each contraction, so the infusion rate should be 25 ml/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 42 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given data.

4. When obtaining a urine specimen from a female infant, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Place the wet diaper in a biohazard specimen bag
• B. Obtain the urine sample using a straight size 4 French catheter
• C. Collect the urinary stream in mid-air when the infant cries
• D. Secure the pediatric urine collector bag to the perineum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When obtaining a urine specimen from a female infant, securing the pediatric urine collector bag to the perineum is the most appropriate intervention. This method allows for non-invasive collection of urine without causing discomfort or distress to the infant. Placing the wet diaper in a biohazard specimen bag (Choice A) is incorrect as it does not involve collecting a fresh urine sample. Using a catheter (Choice B) is invasive and not typically necessary for routine urine specimen collection from infants. Collecting the urinary stream in mid-air when the infant cries (Choice C) is not a reliable or hygienic method of obtaining a urine specimen.

5. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

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