Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough
• C. Check the client's oxygen saturation level
• D. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with COPD reports difficulty breathing while receiving oxygen is to check the client's oxygen saturation level. This helps in determining the adequacy of oxygenation and identifying the cause of the breathing difficulty. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice A) may not be appropriate without knowing the current oxygen saturation level. Instructing the client to breathe deeply and cough (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygen assessment. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice D) can help with breathing but should come after ensuring proper oxygenation.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. This will help raise the blood glucose levels quickly. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia as protein takes longer to raise blood glucose levels. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be beneficial after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to raise the blood glucose levels promptly.

4. The nurse enters the room of a client with a nasogastric tube who is receiving continuous feeding. The nurse observes that the client is coughing and that the infusion pump is alarming. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• B. Turn the client to the side
• C. Stop the feeding infusion
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to stop the feeding infusion. Coughing in a client with a nasogastric tube can indicate aspiration, which can be a serious complication. By stopping the feeding infusion immediately, the nurse can prevent further aspiration and related complications. Auscultating breath sounds or turning the client to the side may be necessary actions but addressing the feeding infusion is the priority. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate issue of potential aspiration is managed.

5. A client with a C-6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider and implement which intervention?

• A. Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position
• B. Prepare for intubation with an endotracheal tube
• C. Administer a pain medication to the client
• D. Instruct the client on deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.

Similar Questions