Nursing Elites

1. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

2. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?

• A. Do not allow the child to return to school for at least one month
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site
• C. Monitor the child's temperature and report any elevation
• D. Observe for any changes in the child's color or energy level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.

3. At a community health fair, a 50-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has an annual physical exam that includes a clinical breast exam and an annual mammogram. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Encourage the woman to explore her fears about breast cancer.
• B. Ask the woman if she also performs monthly breast self-exams.
• C. Commend the woman for adhering to the recommended cancer detection guidelines.
• D. Advise the woman that mammograms are only needed every two years at her age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monthly breast self-exams are essential for early detection of breast cancer. While annual clinical breast exams and mammograms are important, monthly self-exams enhance early detection by helping women become familiar with their breasts and notice any changes. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the importance of self-exams. Choice C is incorrect as it prematurely commends without ensuring the woman is conducting self-exams. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about the frequency of mammograms needed.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Presence of uremic frost
• D. Decreased mentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Presence of uremic frost.' Increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation are all signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Uremic frost, however, is not associated with HHNS but is a clinical finding seen in severe cases of chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the nurse should report the presence of uremic frost to the healthcare provider as a separate concern from HHNS.

5. While teaching a group of adults about health promotion activities, a nurse identifies a behavior that poses the most significant risk factor for the development of skin cancer. Which behavior should the nurse address?

• A. Consuming a high-fat diet
• B. Using tanning beds
• C. Smoking cigarettes
• D. Drinking alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using tanning beds is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from tanning beds damages the skin and increases the risk of skin cancer. Consuming a high-fat diet, smoking cigarettes, and drinking alcohol are unhealthy behaviors but are not directly linked to the development of skin cancer like UV exposure from tanning beds.

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