Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client who has a new cast on the left arm. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Client reports itching under the cast
• B. Client reports pain at the cast site
• C. Client reports swelling of the fingers
• D. Client reports warmth over the casted area

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Swelling of the fingers can indicate compromised circulation, which is a serious concern in a client with a new cast. It could suggest the development of compartment syndrome, a condition where increased pressure within the muscles can lead to impaired blood flow. This can result in tissue damage and should be addressed promptly. Itching under the cast, pain at the cast site, and warmth over the casted area are common findings after cast application and may not necessarily indicate an urgent issue requiring immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

2. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

3. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
• B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
• C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
• D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

4. A client is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA) and voluntarily signs the AMA form. Which nursing action is essential prior to the client leaving?

• A. Remove the client's peripheral IV access
• B. Administer requested pain relief medication
• C. Obtain the client's neurological vital signs
• D. Provide the client with the hospital's phone number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Removing the client's peripheral IV access is essential before the client leaves against medical advice to prevent complications such as infection, thrombosis, or bleeding. Administering pain relief medication (choice B) can be important but not essential at this point. Obtaining neurological vital signs (choice C) is not specifically required before the client leaves. Providing the client with the hospital's phone number (choice D) may be helpful but is not as essential as ensuring the safe removal of IV access.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, 'What do you think you're doing?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.
• B. This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.
• C. Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?
• D. You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's concern by explaining that the shot will help relieve the pain in his feet, which is a symptom of peripheral neuritis. This response shows empathy and provides the client with a clear benefit of receiving the medication. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the client's immediate concern about the injection and its purpose, making them less suitable responses. Choice A focuses on the client's behavior rather than the therapeutic effect of the injection. Choice C shifts the responsibility to the client to administer the shot, which may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D mentions feeling calmer and less jittery, which is not directly related to the client's current complaint of pain in the feet.

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