Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with a stage III pressure ulcer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Reposition the client every 2 hours
• B. Cleanse the ulcer with normal saline
• C. Apply a moisture-retentive dressing
• D. Measure the ulcer's depth and diameter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the ulcer's depth and diameter. This intervention is crucial as it helps monitor healing progress and evaluate the effectiveness of the care plan. Measuring the ulcer provides valuable information about the wound's improvement or deterioration. Repositioning the client every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for preventing further skin breakdown but may not be the priority in this case. Cleansing the ulcer with normal saline (Choice B) is essential for wound care but not the most crucial intervention at this stage. Applying a moisture-retentive dressing (Choice C) can promote healing, but assessing the ulcer's dimensions is more critical for monitoring progress.

3. The nurse preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output
• B. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis
• D. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early signs of shock. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain perfusion, mental status changes can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion, and low urine output reflects poor renal perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not typical findings in the early stages of shock. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are more indicative of late-stage shock. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in various conditions but are not specific early signs of shock.

4. The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
• B. White blood cell count of 8000/mm³
• C. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
• D. Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A serum calcium level of 7.8 mg/dL requires immediate intervention due to the risk of hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications such as tetany, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmias. The other laboratory findings are within normal limits or slightly elevated, which do not pose an immediate threat to the client's health in this scenario.

5. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

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