a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treat
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.

2. The client is being taught how to take alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis treatment. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking Fosamax at bedtime is incorrect. It should be taken in the morning with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice B is correct; alendronate is typically taken for several years to treat osteoporosis. Choice C is correct as remaining upright for 30 minutes after taking Fosamax helps prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is also correct as taking alendronate with a full glass of water is necessary to ensure proper absorption.

3. A male client admitted three days ago with respiratory failure is intubated, and 40% oxygen per facemask is initiated. Currently, his temperature is 99°F, capillary refill is less than 4 seconds, and respiratory effort is within normal limits. What outcome should the nurse evaluate to measure for successful extubation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Successful extubation relies on the patient's ability to maintain an effective breathing pattern. This indicates that the patient can adequately oxygenate and ventilate without the need for mechanical support. Monitoring tissue perfusion, preventing infection, and ensuring safety are important but not directly related to the immediate criteria for successful extubation. Tissue perfusion, injury prevention, and infection control are crucial aspects of overall patient care but are not the primary factors to consider when evaluating readiness for extubation.

4. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when administering medications to a client with a nasogastric tube is to check for tube placement. This is crucial to ensure that the medications are delivered to the correct location within the gastrointestinal tract. Checking the tube placement helps prevent complications such as medication entering the lungs if the tube is misplaced. Crushing the medications (choice B) or flushing the tube with water (choice C) should only be done after confirming the correct tube placement. Administering the medications (choice D) without verifying the tube placement can lead to serious consequences.

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