HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?
- A. Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
- B. Incompetent cervix can cause spontaneous abortions
- C. An infection can cause spontaneous abortions
- D. Nutritional deficiencies are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.
2. The nurse enters the room of a client with a nasogastric tube who is receiving continuous feeding. The nurse observes that the client is coughing and that the infusion pump is alarming. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
- B. Turn the client to the side
- C. Stop the feeding infusion
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to stop the feeding infusion. Coughing in a client with a nasogastric tube can indicate aspiration, which can be a serious complication. By stopping the feeding infusion immediately, the nurse can prevent further aspiration and related complications. Auscultating breath sounds or turning the client to the side may be necessary actions but addressing the feeding infusion is the priority. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate issue of potential aspiration is managed.
3. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
- B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
- C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
- D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk of injury?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle
- B. Select a large muscle for the injection
- C. Aspirate for blood return before injecting
- D. Massage the injection site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to aspirate for blood return before injecting. This action helps ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel, reducing the risk of injury. Using a 1-inch needle (Choice A) is a standard length for intramuscular injections but does not directly reduce the risk of injury. Selecting a large muscle for the injection (Choice B) is important for proper medication absorption but does not directly reduce the risk of injury. Massaging the injection site (Choice D) can help with medication absorption but does not reduce the risk of injury.
5. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit?
- A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
- B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago
- C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
- D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from the dehydration caused by severe diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring a stable client who is learning self-care, such as self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, provides the needed telemetry-monitored bed without compromising the client's care. Choice B should not be transferred as the client is ambulatory following surgery and does not require telemetry monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred as the client is wearing a sling immobilizer following pacemaker insertion, which requires close monitoring. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to severe dehydration, necessitating telemetry monitoring for immediate intervention.
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