Nursing Elites

1. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
• B. Incompetent cervix can cause spontaneous abortions
• C. An infection can cause spontaneous abortions
• D. Nutritional deficiencies are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.

2. The nurse is planning a health fair for young adults. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide educational materials on smoking cessation
• B. Offer blood pressure screening and monitoring
• C. Provide information on safe sex practices
• D. Discuss the importance of a healthy diet and exercise

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering blood pressure screening and monitoring is crucial for young adults as it helps in the early detection and management of hypertension, a condition that often goes unnoticed. High blood pressure can lead to serious health issues if left untreated. While education on smoking cessation, safe sex practices, healthy diet, and exercise are important aspects of overall health promotion, blood pressure screening takes precedence due to its immediate impact on health and the prevention of potential complications.

3. The nurse observes a client in a wheelchair with a vest restraint in place. What nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Assess the need for continued restraint
• B. Check the client for urinary incontinence
• C. Determine skin integrity under the vest
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the need for continued restraint. This is the most important nursing intervention as it ensures the client's safety and autonomy. Checking for urinary incontinence (Choice B) may be important but is not the priority in this situation. Determining skin integrity under the vest (Choice C) is essential but not as crucial as assessing the need for continued restraint. Performing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for client mobility but not the priority when a restraint is in place.

4. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the child in a mist tent
• B. Obtain a sputum culture
• C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
• D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

5. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

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