Nursing Elites

1. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
• B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
• C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
• D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

2. A client who is 12-hours post-op following a left hip replacement has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the client's urinary output is 60 ml in the past 3 hours. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client's vital signs
• B. Irrigate the catheter with 30 ml of sterile normal saline
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Replace the catheter with a larger size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client post-op with low urinary output, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client's vital signs. Vital signs can provide valuable information about the client's overall condition, fluid status, and potential complications. Assessing the vital signs can help the nurse to determine if the low urine output is indicative of a larger issue that needs immediate attention. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline may be necessary but should not be the first action without assessing the client. Notifying the healthcare provider should follow assessment if there are concerns. Replacing the catheter with a larger size is not indicated solely based on low urinary output and should not be the first action taken.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels
• B. Obtain a baseline electrocardiogram
• C. Implement seizure precautions
• D. Encourage a low-protein diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Maintain the client on bed rest
• B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the legs
• C. Encourage early ambulation
• D. Massage the legs daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to encourage early ambulation. Early ambulation helps prevent DVT by promoting circulation, reducing stasis, and preventing blood clot formation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (Choice A) would increase the risk of DVT due to decreased mobility. Applying warm, moist compresses to the legs (Choice B) can be beneficial for other conditions but does not directly prevent DVT. Massaging the legs daily (Choice D) can dislodge a blood clot, leading to serious complications in a client at risk for DVT.

5. A male client tells the nurse, 'I am so stressed because I am expected to achieve excellence in everything. My job, my marriage, and my children must be perfect!' Which coping response should the nurse recognize that the client is using?

• A. Repression
• B. Sublimation
• C. Rationalization
• D. Displacement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rationalization. Rationalization is a defense mechanism where the client justifies their stress and need for perfection by creating logical explanations or excuses. In this case, the client is rationalizing their stress by believing that everything in their life must be perfect. Repression (choice A) involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts or feelings. Sublimation (choice B) is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Displacement (choice D) involves transferring emotions from one target to another.

Similar Questions