a 17 year old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea the clients last menstrual period was 3 weeks a
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

2. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with fluid volume overload. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D - Shortness of breath.' In a client with congestive heart failure experiencing fluid volume overload, shortness of breath is a critical finding that indicates possible pulmonary congestion and worsening heart failure. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common findings in clients with CHF but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Weight gain may indicate fluid retention, cough can be due to pulmonary congestion, and edema in lower extremities is a common manifestation of CHF, but none of these findings are as concerning as shortness of breath in this scenario.

3. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.

4. Which assessment finding should indicate to the nurse that a client with arterial hypertension is experiencing a cardiac complication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, complaints of shortness of breath on exertion. This symptom is indicative of heart failure, a common cardiac complication of arterial hypertension. Shortness of breath on exertion is often due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because complaints of an occipital headache, a palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally, and a blood pressure of 160/90 do not specifically indicate a cardiac complication in a client with arterial hypertension.

5. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.

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