Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
• B. Teaching the client how to push effectively to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
• C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
• D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to ensure safety by raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach. This is crucial to prevent falls and to ensure that the client can call for assistance if needed. Teaching the client how to push effectively (Choice B) is important but not the highest priority at this moment. Timing and recording uterine contractions (Choice C) are essential but not as immediate as ensuring safety post-anesthesia. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia (Choice D) is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence in this situation.

2. When performing an admission assessment of a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?

• A. When did your symptoms first begin?
• B. Can you describe the pain and how it feels?
• C. Do you have any changes in vision?
• D. Have you experienced any seizures?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When assessing a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, asking about seizures is crucial because they can be a common symptom associated with brain tumors. Seizures in this context could provide valuable information regarding the progression and impact of the brain tumor on the client's neurological status. Choices A, B, and C are important questions in a general assessment, but when specifically focusing on a client with a brain tumor, inquiring about seizures takes priority due to its direct relevance to the condition.

3. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
• C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
• D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

4. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Perform chest physiotherapy
• C. Elevate the head of the bed
• D. Obtain a sputum specimen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.

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