HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2-3 minutes, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hour?
- A. 5
 - B. 10
 - C. 15
 - D. 20
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct calculation for infusion based on the given data is 5 ml/hr. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, you need to determine the number of contractions per hour. If contractions are occurring every 2-3 minutes, this would mean approximately 20-30 contractions per hour. Therefore, if the pump is infusing 5 ml per contraction, the total infusion rate per hour would be 5 ml x 20 contractions = 100 ml/hr. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given data.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
 - B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
 - C. Check the client's blood pressure
 - D. Notify the healthcare provider
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.
3. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
- A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
 - B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
 - C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
 - D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Facilitating a meeting for the nurses to identify ways of working together is the best action for the nurse manager. This approach promotes open communication, collaboration, and allows both nurses to express their concerns and perspectives. Option A may not address the underlying issues between the nurses and involving a mental health consultant may not be necessary at this stage. Option B, while listening is important, may not fully resolve the conflict without a structured plan. Option C focuses solely on the senior nurse without involving the new graduate in resolving the situation.
4. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
 - B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
 - C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
 - D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.
5. When performing an admission assessment of a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. When did your symptoms first begin?
 - B. Can you describe the pain and how it feels?
 - C. Do you have any changes in vision?
 - D. Have you experienced any seizures?
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When assessing a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, asking about seizures is crucial because they can be a common symptom associated with brain tumors. Seizures in this context could provide valuable information regarding the progression and impact of the brain tumor on the client's neurological status. Choices A, B, and C are important questions in a general assessment, but when specifically focusing on a client with a brain tumor, inquiring about seizures takes priority due to its direct relevance to the condition.
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