Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels
• B. Obtain a baseline electrocardiogram
• C. Implement seizure precautions
• D. Encourage a low-protein diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.

2. The nurse preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output
• B. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis
• D. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early signs of shock. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain perfusion, mental status changes can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion, and low urine output reflects poor renal perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not typical findings in the early stages of shock. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are more indicative of late-stage shock. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in various conditions but are not specific early signs of shock.

3. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml. How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours?

• A. 10 ml
• B. 12.5 ml
• C. 15 ml
• D. 17.5 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first, determine the total daily dose: 1.5 grams = 1500 mg. Since the medication is 200 mg/5 ml, for 1500 mg, the nurse needs to administer 1500/200 = 7.5 times the 5 ml dose. Therefore, 7.5 x 5 ml = 37.5 ml total daily dose. To administer this every 8 hours, divide 37.5 ml by 3 (8 hours intervals in a day) to get 12.5 ml to be administered every 8 hours. Choice A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation of the dose based on the prescription and the available concentration.

5. The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results
• B. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Stop the infusion
• D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further potassium from being administered, which can exacerbate the client's hyperkalemia. Notifying the healthcare provider of the laboratory results (Choice A) can be done after taking immediate action to stop the infusion. Decreasing the rate of the IV infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the high potassium level quickly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) (Choice D) is not the initial action for managing hyperkalemia; stopping the potassium infusion takes precedence.

Similar Questions