Nursing Elites

1. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the IO infusion
• B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
• C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site raise concerns for complications like compartment syndrome or extravasation. The priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IO infusion to prevent further harm to the client. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity with the IO site may delay addressing the potential serious complications. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate action to ensure client safety is to stop the infusion.

2. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
• C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
• D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

3. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit?

• A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
• B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago
• C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
• D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from the dehydration caused by severe diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring a stable client who is learning self-care, such as self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, provides the needed telemetry-monitored bed without compromising the client's care. Choice B should not be transferred as the client is ambulatory following surgery and does not require telemetry monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred as the client is wearing a sling immobilizer following pacemaker insertion, which requires close monitoring. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to severe dehydration, necessitating telemetry monitoring for immediate intervention.

4. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

• A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
• B. Excess fluid volume
• C. Fatigue
• D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

5. The nurse is planning care for a 2-year-old child who is scheduled for an infusion of immune globulin for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this child?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Risk for injury
• C. Altered oral mucous membranes
• D. Risk for fluid volume deficit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When caring for a child with ITP scheduled for immune globulin infusion, the highest priority is to prevent infection. This is crucial due to the risk of bleeding associated with ITP and the immunosuppression that can be caused by the condition and its treatment. The other options, such as 'Risk for injury,' 'Altered oral mucous membranes,' and 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' are not as high a priority as preventing infection in this particular situation.

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