Nursing Elites

1. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been 'trying to start a new business' and is 'too busy to eat.' He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Disturbed sleep pattern
• C. Disturbed thought processes
• D. Imbalanced nutrition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the most critical nursing diagnosis to address in this scenario. The patient's significant weight loss and neglect of basic needs, such as eating and personal hygiene, indicate a severe imbalance in nutrition. Addressing this issue is crucial to prevent further health deterioration. Self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are important but secondary concerns compared to the immediate risk posed by imbalanced nutrition. While self-care deficit and disturbed sleep pattern are valid concerns, the patient's weight loss and neglect of basic needs take precedence. Disturbed thought processes are also significant but addressing the imbalanced nutrition is more urgent in this context.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Perform chest physiotherapy
• C. Elevate the head of the bed
• D. Obtain a sputum specimen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?

• A. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
• D. White blood cell count of 7000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.

4. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
• C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
• D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

5. Which assessment finding should indicate to the nurse that a client with arterial hypertension is experiencing a cardiac complication?

• A. Complaints of an occipital headache
• B. A palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally
• C. Complaints of shortness of breath on exertion
• D. A blood pressure of 160/90

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, complaints of shortness of breath on exertion. This symptom is indicative of heart failure, a common cardiac complication of arterial hypertension. Shortness of breath on exertion is often due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because complaints of an occipital headache, a palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally, and a blood pressure of 160/90 do not specifically indicate a cardiac complication in a client with arterial hypertension.

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