Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. The nurse notes that there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check for kinks in the tubing
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Replace the chest tube drainage system
• D. Reinforce the chest tube dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system is to notify the healthcare provider. Continuous bubbling indicates a possible air leak, and the healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess the situation and take appropriate actions. Checking for kinks in the tubing (Choice A) may be done initially but is not the priority when continuous bubbling is present. Replacing the chest tube drainage system (Choice C) and reinforcing the chest tube dressing (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed in response to continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

3. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?

• A. Take analgesics regularly to reduce the pain
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
• C. Avoid weight-bearing until the injury heals
• D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is an aggressive cancer, and prompt treatment is crucial for improving prognosis. Option A is incorrect because while pain management is important, addressing the underlying cause (sarcoma) is the priority. Option B is not as critical as seeking treatment for the sarcoma itself. Option C is not the most important instruction as the primary concern is addressing the cancer diagnosis.

4. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?

• A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
• B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
• C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
• D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
• B. Provide frequent mouth care
• C. Encourage small, frequent meals
• D. Offer clear liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics help prevent or reduce nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Providing frequent mouth care (choice B) is important for managing oral mucositis but not specifically for nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice C) and offering clear liquids (choice D) are beneficial strategies for managing gastrointestinal side effects but may not be as effective in controlling nausea as administering antiemetics.

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