HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. The nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. The nurse notes that there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Check for kinks in the tubing
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Replace the chest tube drainage system
- D. Reinforce the chest tube dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system is to notify the healthcare provider. Continuous bubbling indicates a possible air leak, and the healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess the situation and take appropriate actions. Checking for kinks in the tubing (Choice A) may be done initially but is not the priority when continuous bubbling is present. Replacing the chest tube drainage system (Choice C) and reinforcing the chest tube dressing (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed in response to continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the medication?
- A. Heart rate of 50 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 50 beats per minute is a concerning finding that should be reported before administering metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate, so a heart rate of 50 bpm indicates potential bradycardia, which is a contraindication for administering this medication. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate concerns related to metoprolol administration.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator
- B. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
- C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to assess the client's oxygen saturation level. In a client with COPD and abnormal respiratory and heart rates, determining the oxygen saturation helps evaluate the adequacy of oxygen exchange and the severity of respiratory distress. Administering a bronchodilator (choice A) can be appropriate but assessing oxygen saturation takes priority. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygenation assessment. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (choice D) is important but typically follows the initial assessment of oxygen saturation.
4. In attempting to develop a therapeutic relationship with a male adult client transferred to a psychiatric facility after being treated for a self-inflicted gunshot wound, which information is most important for the nurse to determine?
- A. The family's reaction to this situation
- B. The nurse's feelings about this client
- C. What losses the client recently experienced
- D. Why the client attempted to kill himself
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Understanding what losses the client recently experienced is crucial for the nurse in developing a therapeutic relationship. This information helps the nurse comprehend the client's emotional state, the potential triggers for the self-harm behavior, and provides insights into the client's current psychological and social challenges. Choice A, the family's reaction, may be important but is secondary to understanding the client's own experiences. Choice B, the nurse's feelings, is not relevant as the focus should be on the client. Choice D, why the client attempted suicide, is important but delving into recent losses can provide a broader context for the client's emotional distress and suicidal behavior.
5. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
- B. Increased serum ammonia levels
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Soft, formed stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.
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