HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that the client's dialysate output is less than the input and that the client's abdomen is distended. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Turn the client from side to side
- B. Increase the dwell time of the dialysis
- C. Reposition the client
- D. Milk the catheter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is turning the client from side to side. This helps to facilitate drainage in peritoneal dialysis. Turning the client can aid in redistributing the dialysate and promoting better drainage. Increasing the dwell time of the dialysis (choice B) may not address the immediate issue of inadequate drainage. Repositioning the client (choice C) might not be as effective as turning the client from side to side. Milking the catheter (choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to complications. In this situation, the priority is to facilitate drainage to address the distended abdomen.
2. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
- B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
- C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
- D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
- B. Provide frequent mouth care
- C. Encourage small, frequent meals
- D. Offer clear liquids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting. By administering the antiemetic before meals, the nurse can help prevent the onset of nausea, allowing the client to eat more comfortably. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice B) is important for maintaining oral hygiene but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) and offering clear liquids (Choice D) are generally recommended for clients experiencing nausea, but administering an antiemetic is a more targeted approach to specifically address and manage the symptom.
4. A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child's cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?
- A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
- B. Twist the cast back and forth
- C. Shake powder into the cast
- D. Push a pencil under the cast edge
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Blow cool air from a hairdryer under the cast.' Blowing cool air can help relieve itching without damaging the cast or causing injury. Choice B, twisting the cast back and forth, can lead to discomfort, skin irritation, or even injury. Choice C, shaking powder into the cast, can create a mess, increase the risk of skin issues, and interfere with proper healing. Choice D, pushing a pencil under the cast edge, is dangerous as it can cause injury to the child's skin or the underlying tissues. Therefore, the safest and most effective option to relieve itching under the cast is to blow cool air from a hair dryer.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Decrease the oxygen flow rate
- B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
- C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
- D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to decrease the oxygen flow rate. Clients with COPD are sensitive to high levels of oxygen and can develop oxygen toxicity, leading to symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Decreasing the oxygen flow rate helps prevent this complication. Increasing the oxygen flow rate would worsen the client's condition. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. While monitoring the client's oxygen saturation level is important, taking action to address the oxygen toxicity by decreasing the flow rate is the priority in this situation.
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