a client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus dvt followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism pe is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

2. Nurses working in labor and delivery are demanding a change in policy because they believe they are required to float more often than nurses on other units. However, floating to labor and delivery is not reciprocated because other nurses are not competent to provide highly specialized obstetrical skills. What action is best for the nurse-manager to implement?

A. Require cross-training for obstetrics for other nurses
B. Propose a method for self-staffing labor and delivery
C. Remind nurses that floating is an administrative policy
D. Encourage nurses to share their feelings with administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse-manager to implement is to propose a method for self-staffing labor and delivery. This approach allows nurses to manage their schedules, ensuring a fair balance of workloads. Requiring cross-training for obstetrics for other nurses (Choice A) may not be feasible or necessary for all units. Reminding nurses that floating is an administrative policy (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of workload balance. Encouraging nurses to share their feelings with administration (Choice D) may not lead to a concrete solution for the unequal floating concerns.

3. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

4. A client who is HIV positive and taking lamivudine (Epivir) calls the clinic to report a cough and fever. What action should the nurse implement?

A. Advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation
B. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
C. Advise the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant
D. Advise the client to rest and call if the fever persists

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in this situation is to advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation. Given the client's HIV-positive status and medication, it is crucial to assess the cough and fever promptly to identify the underlying cause. Increasing fluid intake (choice B) may be beneficial but does not address the need for evaluation. Taking an over-the-counter cough suppressant (choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the cause of the symptoms. Advising the client to rest and call if the fever persists (choice D) delays the necessary evaluation and treatment.

5. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?

A. Do not allow the child to return to school for at least one month
B. Notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site
C. Monitor the child's temperature and report any elevation
D. Observe for any changes in the child's color or energy level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.