a client who is 32 weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa which instruction should the nurse include in this clients teaching plan
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client who is 32-weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Refraining from sexual intercourse helps prevent complications with partial placenta previa.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Presence of uremic frost.' Increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation are all signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Uremic frost, however, is not associated with HHNS but is a clinical finding seen in severe cases of chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the nurse should report the presence of uremic frost to the healthcare provider as a separate concern from HHNS.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that the client's dialysate output is less than the input and that the client's abdomen is distended. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is turning the client from side to side. This helps to facilitate drainage in peritoneal dialysis. Turning the client can aid in redistributing the dialysate and promoting better drainage. Increasing the dwell time of the dialysis (choice B) may not address the immediate issue of inadequate drainage. Repositioning the client (choice C) might not be as effective as turning the client from side to side. Milking the catheter (choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to complications. In this situation, the priority is to facilitate drainage to address the distended abdomen.

4. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client with a stage III pressure ulcer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the ulcer's depth and diameter. This intervention is crucial as it helps monitor healing progress and evaluate the effectiveness of the care plan. Measuring the ulcer provides valuable information about the wound's improvement or deterioration. Repositioning the client every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for preventing further skin breakdown but may not be the priority in this case. Cleansing the ulcer with normal saline (Choice B) is essential for wound care but not the most crucial intervention at this stage. Applying a moisture-retentive dressing (Choice C) can promote healing, but assessing the ulcer's dimensions is more critical for monitoring progress.

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