Nursing Elites

1. Which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?

• A. Wear long-sleeved clothing when outdoors
• B. Report the onset of sore throat
• C. Eat plenty of potassium-rich food
• D. Change the position slowly

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for an elderly client taking both an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker is to change positions slowly. Both medications can lead to orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, which can increase the risk of falls. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent falls. Wearing long-sleeved clothing when outdoors does not directly relate to the medication combination. Reporting the onset of a sore throat is important for monitoring potential side effects but is not specific to these medications. While potassium levels should be monitored with ACE inhibitors, eating plenty of potassium-rich foods without guidance can lead to hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml. How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours?

• A. 10 ml
• B. 12.5 ml
• C. 15 ml
• D. 17.5 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first, determine the total daily dose: 1.5 grams = 1500 mg. Since the medication is 200 mg/5 ml, for 1500 mg, the nurse needs to administer 1500/200 = 7.5 times the 5 ml dose. Therefore, 7.5 x 5 ml = 37.5 ml total daily dose. To administer this every 8 hours, divide 37.5 ml by 3 (8 hours intervals in a day) to get 12.5 ml to be administered every 8 hours. Choice A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation of the dose based on the prescription and the available concentration.

3. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the IO infusion
• B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
• C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site raise concerns for complications like compartment syndrome or extravasation. The priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IO infusion to prevent further harm to the client. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity with the IO site may delay addressing the potential serious complications. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate action to ensure client safety is to stop the infusion.

4. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?

• A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
• B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
• C. Blurring of vision
• D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

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