which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ace inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. Which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for an elderly client taking both an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker is to change positions slowly. Both medications can lead to orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, which can increase the risk of falls. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent falls. Wearing long-sleeved clothing when outdoors does not directly relate to the medication combination. Reporting the onset of a sore throat is important for monitoring potential side effects but is not specific to these medications. While potassium levels should be monitored with ACE inhibitors, eating plenty of potassium-rich foods without guidance can lead to hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors.

2. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. This will help raise the blood glucose levels quickly. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia as protein takes longer to raise blood glucose levels. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be beneficial after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to raise the blood glucose levels promptly.

4. A client is receiving a low dose of dopamine (Intropin) IV for the treatment of hypotension. Which indicator reflects that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased blood pressure is the desired effect of administering dopamine (Intropin) to treat hypotension. Dopamine acts by stimulating adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. This results in an elevation of blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly reflect the therapeutic action of dopamine in treating hypotension. Increased heart rate may indicate the body compensating for low blood pressure, increased urinary output is more related to kidney function, and increased respiratory rate is often seen in response to respiratory issues, not the action of dopamine on hypotension.

5. A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instill the first dose of nystatin vaginally per applicator. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, which are characterized by 'cottage cheese' discharge. Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may help with hygiene but does not address the underlying infection. Performing a glucose measurement is not relevant to the diagnosis of a vaginal infection. Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this scenario as the symptoms described are indicative of a yeast infection.

Similar Questions

The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?
What assessment technique should the nurse use to monitor a client for a common untoward effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?
The nurse enters the room of a client with a nasogastric tube who is receiving continuous feeding. The nurse observes that the client is coughing and that the infusion pump is alarming. What action should the nurse take first?
The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?
The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses