Nursing Elites

1. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
• D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.

2. What assessment technique should the nurse use to monitor a client for a common untoward effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?

• A. Bladder palpation
• B. Inspection of the mouth
• C. Blood glucose monitoring
• D. Auscultation of breath sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inspection of the mouth. This assessment technique is crucial for monitoring gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect of phenytoin. Bladder palpation (choice A) is not relevant to monitoring for phenytoin's side effects. Blood glucose monitoring (choice C) is important for clients with diabetes but is not specifically related to phenytoin. Auscultation of breath sounds (choice D) is more relevant for assessing respiratory conditions, not side effects of phenytoin.

3. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the IO infusion
• B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
• C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site raise concerns for complications like compartment syndrome or extravasation. The priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IO infusion to prevent further harm to the client. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity with the IO site may delay addressing the potential serious complications. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate action to ensure client safety is to stop the infusion.

4. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?

• A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
• B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
• C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
• D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low serum potassium level increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with low potassium levels because potassium is crucial for proper heart function. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate an increased risk of digoxin toxicity.

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