Nursing Elites

1. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

2. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
• B. Increased serum ammonia levels
• C. Decreased white blood cell count
• D. Soft, formed stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.

3. Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
• B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
• D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods. Oxygen toxicity can occur when high levels of oxygen are given for a prolonged period. It is important to monitor and adjust the oxygen levels as needed to prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because administering a sedative to slow the respiratory rate does not directly prevent oxygen toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as removing the nasal cannula during the night can compromise the client's oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect as running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity; instead, it may introduce risks associated with the hydration source.

4. A client who is 32-weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?

• A. Wear a tight abdominal binder at all times
• B. Take a daily laxative to prevent constipation
• C. Refrain from sexual intercourse until your next appointment
• D. Restrict fluids to less than 1000 ml per day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Refraining from sexual intercourse helps prevent complications with partial placenta previa.

5. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who has a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) self-administration. What information is most important for the nurse to provide the client about this medication?

• A. Self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection
• B. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K
• C. Signs of bleeding to report to the healthcare provider
• D. Proper disposal of used syringes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Teaching the client about self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection is crucial for safe and effective use of enoxaparin. Option A is the correct answer as it directly addresses the client's need to know how to properly administer the medication. Options B, C, and D are important aspects of care but are not the most critical information needed for the client's self-administration of enoxaparin.

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