Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Change the ostomy appliance daily
• B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full
• C. Rinse the ostomy pouch with warm water
• D. Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the client's teaching plan is to empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full. This practice helps prevent leakage and skin irritation by maintaining an appropriate pouching system. Changing the ostomy appliance daily (Choice A) is not necessary unless leakage or other issues occur. Rinsing the ostomy pouch with warm water (Choice C) is not a recommended practice as it may cause damage to the pouch. Applying a skin barrier to the peristomal skin (Choice D) is important but not the most crucial instruction in this scenario.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. The nurse notes that there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check for kinks in the tubing
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Replace the chest tube drainage system
• D. Reinforce the chest tube dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system is to notify the healthcare provider. Continuous bubbling indicates a possible air leak, and the healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess the situation and take appropriate actions. Checking for kinks in the tubing (Choice A) may be done initially but is not the priority when continuous bubbling is present. Replacing the chest tube drainage system (Choice C) and reinforcing the chest tube dressing (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed in response to continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

3. The nurse preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output
• B. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis
• D. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early signs of shock. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain perfusion, mental status changes can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion, and low urine output reflects poor renal perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not typical findings in the early stages of shock. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are more indicative of late-stage shock. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in various conditions but are not specific early signs of shock.

4. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The maximum dosage the nurse should administer is 2 mg. This is calculated based on the prescription of 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. Since the medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml, the nurse should administer 2 ml (0.2 mg/ml x 10 ml) for each dose, not exceeding 5 doses. Therefore, the nurse should limit the client's oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml, to avoid exceeding the maximum dosage of 2 mg.

5. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?

• A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
• B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
• C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
• D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.

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