Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with jaundice. Which serum laboratory value is likely to be elevated for this client?

• A. Amylase
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood urea nitrogen
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is a key serum laboratory value that is likely to be elevated in clients with jaundice. Jaundice is characterized by a yellowish discoloration of the skin and eyes due to an excess of bilirubin, a breakdown product of hemoglobin. Elevated amylase levels are associated with pancreatic conditions, not specifically jaundice. Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen are markers of kidney function and are not directly related to jaundice.

2. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

3. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

4. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?

• A. Do not allow the child to return to school for at least one month
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site
• C. Monitor the child's temperature and report any elevation
• D. Observe for any changes in the child's color or energy level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.

5. The nurse is planning a health fair for young adults. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide educational materials on smoking cessation
• B. Offer blood pressure screening and monitoring
• C. Provide information on safe sex practices
• D. Discuss the importance of a healthy diet and exercise

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering blood pressure screening and monitoring is crucial for young adults as it helps in the early detection and management of hypertension, a condition that often goes unnoticed. High blood pressure can lead to serious health issues if left untreated. While education on smoking cessation, safe sex practices, healthy diet, and exercise are important aspects of overall health promotion, blood pressure screening takes precedence due to its immediate impact on health and the prevention of potential complications.

Similar Questions