HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child's cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?
- A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
- B. Twist the cast back and forth
- C. Shake powder into the cast
- D. Push a pencil under the cast edge
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Blow cool air from a hairdryer under the cast.' Blowing cool air can help relieve itching without damaging the cast or causing injury. Choice B, twisting the cast back and forth, can lead to discomfort, skin irritation, or even injury. Choice C, shaking powder into the cast, can create a mess, increase the risk of skin issues, and interfere with proper healing. Choice D, pushing a pencil under the cast edge, is dangerous as it can cause injury to the child's skin or the underlying tissues. Therefore, the safest and most effective option to relieve itching under the cast is to blow cool air from a hair dryer.
2. The nurse observes a client in a wheelchair with a vest restraint in place. What nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Assess the need for continued restraint
- B. Check the client for urinary incontinence
- C. Determine skin integrity under the vest
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on extremities
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the need for continued restraint. This is the most important nursing intervention as it ensures the client's safety and autonomy. Checking for urinary incontinence (Choice B) may be important but is not the priority in this situation. Determining skin integrity under the vest (Choice C) is essential but not as crucial as assessing the need for continued restraint. Performing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for client mobility but not the priority when a restraint is in place.
3. A client who is 12-hours post-op following a left hip replacement has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the client's urinary output is 60 ml in the past 3 hours. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client's vital signs
- B. Irrigate the catheter with 30 ml of sterile normal saline
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Replace the catheter with a larger size
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client post-op with low urinary output, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client's vital signs. Vital signs can provide valuable information about the client's overall condition, fluid status, and potential complications. Assessing the vital signs can help the nurse to determine if the low urine output is indicative of a larger issue that needs immediate attention. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline may be necessary but should not be the first action without assessing the client. Notifying the healthcare provider should follow assessment if there are concerns. Replacing the catheter with a larger size is not indicated solely based on low urinary output and should not be the first action taken.
4. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?
- A. Do not allow the child to return to school for at least one month
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site
- C. Monitor the child's temperature and report any elevation
- D. Observe for any changes in the child's color or energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.
5. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?
- A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
- B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
- C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
- D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.
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