Nursing Elites

1. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
• B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
• C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
• D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.

2. A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

• A. Bladder distention
• B. Serum albumin level
• C. Abdominal girth
• D. Breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.

3. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, 'I've been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
• B. I'll let you see the doctor next because you've waited so long.
• C. I'm doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
• D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response acknowledges the client's emotions, shows empathy, and validates their feelings of frustration. Option A justifies the situation but does not address the client's emotional state. Option B is unfair to other patients and may not be based on urgency. Option C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than addressing the client's emotions, making it less effective than option D.

4. When evaluating the preoperative teaching of a client scheduled for arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament repair, which statement by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. I will use crutches to keep my weight off my knee
• B. I will stay home until a wheelchair is delivered
• C. I can use the trapeze bar and side rails on the bed to help me turn regularly
• D. I can put my full weight on my foot starting the day after surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using crutches indicates an understanding of weight-bearing restrictions post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for a wheelchair is not related to postoperative mobility instructions. Choice C is incorrect as turning in bed using the trapeze bar and side rails does not address weight-bearing restrictions. Choice D is incorrect because putting full weight on the foot immediately after surgery contradicts the need to keep weight off the knee.

5. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Limit sodium intake
• D. Take the medication at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

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