Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. Which injection site is best for the nurse to use?

• A. Vastus lateralis
• B. Deltoid
• C. Ventrogluteal
• D. Dorsogluteal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to muscle development. In infants under 1 year old, the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh is often used for IM injections due to its size and development. The deltoid muscle is typically used for adults, and the ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more commonly used for older children and adults. Therefore, the best choice for administering an IM injection to a 6-month-old child is the vastus lateralis.

2. In attempting to develop a therapeutic relationship with a male adult client transferred to a psychiatric facility after being treated for a self-inflicted gunshot wound, which information is most important for the nurse to determine?

• A. The family's reaction to this situation
• B. The nurse's feelings about this client
• C. What losses the client recently experienced
• D. Why the client attempted to kill himself

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Understanding what losses the client recently experienced is crucial for the nurse in developing a therapeutic relationship. This information helps the nurse comprehend the client's emotional state, the potential triggers for the self-harm behavior, and provides insights into the client's current psychological and social challenges. Choice A, the family's reaction, may be important but is secondary to understanding the client's own experiences. Choice B, the nurse's feelings, is not relevant as the focus should be on the client. Choice D, why the client attempted suicide, is important but delving into recent losses can provide a broader context for the client's emotional distress and suicidal behavior.

3. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

4. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?

• A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
• B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
• C. Blurring of vision
• D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.

5. A client who is 12-hours post-op following a left hip replacement has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the client's urinary output is 60 ml in the past 3 hours. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client's vital signs
• B. Irrigate the catheter with 30 ml of sterile normal saline
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Replace the catheter with a larger size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client post-op with low urinary output, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client's vital signs. Vital signs can provide valuable information about the client's overall condition, fluid status, and potential complications. Assessing the vital signs can help the nurse to determine if the low urine output is indicative of a larger issue that needs immediate attention. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline may be necessary but should not be the first action without assessing the client. Notifying the healthcare provider should follow assessment if there are concerns. Replacing the catheter with a larger size is not indicated solely based on low urinary output and should not be the first action taken.

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