Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
• B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
• D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.

2. Which behavior is most likely to result in a breach of client confidentiality?

• A. Discussing a client’s condition during a teaching conference for nursing staff caring for the client
• B. Two nurses planning a client’s care while having lunch in the hospital cafeteria
• C. Nursing students on the same team discussing their assigned client’s conditions
• D. A registered nurse privately sharing personal feelings about a client with another nurse on the team

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Discussing client information in a public area, such as a cafeteria, may lead to breaches of confidentiality. Choice A involves discussing a client's condition in a professional setting, which is not likely to result in a breach as it is for educational purposes. Choice C involves nursing students discussing their assigned client's conditions, which is common in a learning environment and not necessarily a breach of confidentiality. Choice D involves a private conversation between healthcare professionals, which is less likely to result in a breach compared to discussing in a public area like a cafeteria where non-authorized individuals may overhear the conversation.

3. While flushing the proximal port of a triple lumen central venous catheter with heparin solution, the nurse meets resistance. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the cap and apply direct gentle pressure with the syringe
• B. Contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray
• C. Cover the cap with tape and label the port as being obstructed
• D. Remove the catheter while applying gentle pressure at the insertion site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When encountering resistance while flushing a central venous catheter, it is crucial to contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray. This resistance may indicate a blockage within the catheter, a kink, or other issues that could compromise the integrity of the catheter or pose a risk to the patient. It is essential to assess the situation through imaging to determine the appropriate course of action. Option A is incorrect because applying direct pressure could cause damage to the catheter or dislodge any potential blockage. Option C is incorrect as labeling the port as obstructed without further assessment may delay necessary interventions. Option D is incorrect as removing the catheter without proper evaluation can lead to complications and should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.

4. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

5. The mother of a school-age child calls the school to ask when her daughter can return to school after treatment for Pediculosis capitis. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. When all live lice are eliminated by the treatment
• B. Two weeks after the last treatment
• C. As soon as the itching stops
• D. After the treatment kills all the live lice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'After the treatment kills all the live lice.' The child can return to school once all live lice are eliminated to prevent the spread of Pediculosis capitis. This is essential as live lice are highly contagious. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Waiting for the itching to stop or for an epidemic to subside does not ensure that all live lice are eradicated, which is crucial to prevent reinfestation and transmission.

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