Nursing Elites

1. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?

• A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
• B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
• C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
• D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.

2. When admitting a client diagnosed with active tuberculosis to isolation, which infection control measures should the nurse implement?

• A. Negative pressure environment
• B. Contact precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Negative pressure environment. Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so a negative pressure room is essential to prevent the spread of the bacteria. Choice B, contact precautions, are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact, not for tuberculosis. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne particles like tuberculosis. Choice D, protective environment, is used for protecting immunocompromised patients from outside pathogens, not for preventing the spread of tuberculosis.

3. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out.” The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Splitting
• C. Projection
• D. Rationalization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is projecting his feelings of anger and frustration onto his roommate, attributing his own feelings to the other person. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their thoughts, feelings, or motives onto another person. In this scenario, the client is displacing his anger onto his roommate, thereby using projection as a defense mechanism. Denial (choice A) is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Splitting (choice B) involves viewing people as all good or all bad. Rationalization (choice D) is creating logical explanations to justify unacceptable behavior.

4. Which behavior is most likely to result in a breach of client confidentiality?

• A. Discussing a client’s condition during a teaching conference for nursing staff caring for the client
• B. Two nurses planning a client’s care while having lunch in the hospital cafeteria
• C. Nursing students on the same team discussing their assigned client’s conditions
• D. A registered nurse privately sharing personal feelings about a client with another nurse on the team

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Discussing client information in a public area, such as a cafeteria, may lead to breaches of confidentiality. Choice A involves discussing a client's condition in a professional setting, which is not likely to result in a breach as it is for educational purposes. Choice C involves nursing students discussing their assigned client's conditions, which is common in a learning environment and not necessarily a breach of confidentiality. Choice D involves a private conversation between healthcare professionals, which is less likely to result in a breach compared to discussing in a public area like a cafeteria where non-authorized individuals may overhear the conversation.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with Addison's disease who is weak, dizzy, disoriented, and has dry oral mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and sunken eyes. Vital signs are blood pressure 94/44, heart rate 123 beats/minute, respiration 22 breaths/minute. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assess extremity strength and resistance
• B. Report a sodium level of 132 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI units)
• C. Measure and record the cardiac QRS complex
• D. Check current finger stick glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client’s symptoms suggest possible adrenal crisis or hypoglycemia. Checking glucose is a priority to rule out hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention. The client is presenting with symptoms indicative of hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Assessing extremity strength, reporting sodium levels, or measuring the cardiac QRS complex are not the most urgent actions in this scenario.

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