Nursing Elites

1. A female client with borderline personality disorder is being discharged today. During morning rounds, the client complains about the aloofness of the night shift nurse and expresses joy to see the nurse on duty. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client’s dichotomous tendency?

• A. I am glad you like me. Which nurse was acting aloof to you?
• B. Tomorrow I will talk to that nurse about how you were treated last night.
• C. What did the night nurse do that makes you think she is aloof?
• D. I am happy that you are getting better and will be able to go home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's feelings while exploring their concerns. By asking which nurse was acting aloof, the nurse shows understanding and allows the client to express their feelings further. This response validates the client's emotions and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice B focuses on a future action without addressing the immediate concern at hand. Choice C seeks clarification on the night nurse's behavior, which is a good approach but lacks the personal touch of Choice A. Choice D shifts the focus away from the client's current feelings and concerns, missing the opportunity to address the dichotomous thinking displayed by the client.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Record urine output every hour
• B. Monitor blood pressure frequently
• C. Evaluate neurological status
• D. Maintain seizure precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is associated with severe hypertension due to excessive catecholamine release. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the priority intervention to assess for hypertensive crises and prevent complications like stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. While recording urine output every hour, evaluating neurological status, and maintaining seizure precautions are important aspects of care, they are not the highest priority in a client with pheochromocytoma.

3. An older male client arrives at the clinic complaining that his bladder always feels full. He complains of a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Palpate the client’s suprapubic area for distention
• B. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week
• C. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis
• D. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Advising the client to maintain a voiding diary is the appropriate action in this case. A voiding diary helps track symptoms and patterns essential for diagnosing conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia or other urinary issues. Palpating the client’s suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) may provide information about bladder fullness but does not address the need for tracking symptoms. Instructing the client in techniques for cleansing the glans penis (Choice C) is not relevant to the client's urinary complaints. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice D) may be necessary but does not directly address the client's symptoms of weak urine flow and difficulty initiating the urine stream.

4. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
• B. Gather additional information about the client’s family history for all types of cancer.
• C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
• D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?

• A. Cramping muscular pain
• B. Worming movements of the tongue
• C. Decreased tendon reflexes
• D. Dry oral mucous membranes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.

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