HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel
- B. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket
- C. Record the findings on the flow sheet
- D. Check the vital signs in 15 minutes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to record the findings on the flow sheet. These assessment findings are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. The axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate of 42 breaths/min are all expected in a newborn. No immediate intervention is needed, so the nurse should document these normal findings for future reference. Placing a pulse oximeter on the heel or swaddling the infant in a warm blanket is not indicated as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the vital signs in 15 minutes is unnecessary since the current findings are normal.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor serum calcium levels
- B. Obtain a baseline electrocardiogram
- C. Implement seizure precautions
- D. Encourage a low-protein diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.
3. A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?
- A. Bladder distention
- B. Serum albumin level
- C. Abdominal girth
- D. Breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.
4. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. Take analgesics regularly to reduce the pain
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
- C. Avoid weight-bearing until the injury heals
- D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is an aggressive cancer, and prompt treatment is crucial for improving prognosis. Option A is incorrect because while pain management is important, addressing the underlying cause (sarcoma) is the priority. Option B is not as critical as seeking treatment for the sarcoma itself. Option C is not the most important instruction as the primary concern is addressing the cancer diagnosis.
5. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?
- A. Ineffective airway clearance
- B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
- C. Fluid volume excess
- D. Activity intolerance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ineffective airway clearance.' Following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision, the highest priority nursing problem is ensuring the client's airway remains clear. This is crucial for effective breathing and oxygenation. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important to address but are of lower priority compared to maintaining a clear airway postoperatively.
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