HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client is admitted with hepatitis A (HAV) and dehydration. Subjective symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, and malaise. What additional assessment should the nurse expect to find during the preicteric phase?
- A. RUQ abdominal pain
- B. Clay-colored stools
- C. Icteric sclera
- D. Pruritus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the preicteric phase of hepatitis A, the nurse should expect to find RUQ (right upper quadrant) abdominal pain. This pain is common in the early phase of hepatitis A and is associated with liver inflammation. Clay-colored stools (Choice B) are typically seen in the icteric phase when there is a lack of bile flow. Icteric sclera (Choice C) refers to yellowing of the eyes, which is a characteristic of the icteric phase. Pruritus (Choice D), which is itching of the skin, is also more commonly associated with the icteric phase when bile salts accumulate in the skin.
2. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
- B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
- C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
- D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.
3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.
4. A client collapses while showering and is found by the nurse while making rounds. The client is not breathing and does not have a palpable pulse. The nurse obtains the Automated External Defibrillator (AED). What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Follow the prompts of the AED
- B. Apply the AED pads to the client’s chest
- C. Wipe the client’s chest dry
- D. Move the client from the bathroom
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying the AED pads is the immediate next step after obtaining the AED in a cardiac arrest situation. Placing the pads correctly on the client's chest is crucial for the AED to analyze the heart rhythm accurately and deliver a shock if needed. Following the prompts of the AED comes after the pads are in place. Wiping the client's chest dry or moving the client from the bathroom are not priorities at this critical moment and may delay life-saving interventions.
5. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?
- A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
- B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
- C. Tinnitus and vertigo
- D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.
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