Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with hepatitis A (HAV) and dehydration. Subjective symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, and malaise. What additional assessment should the nurse expect to find during the preicteric phase?

• A. RUQ abdominal pain
• B. Clay-colored stools
• C. Icteric sclera
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the preicteric phase of hepatitis A, the nurse should expect to find RUQ (right upper quadrant) abdominal pain. This pain is common in the early phase of hepatitis A and is associated with liver inflammation. Clay-colored stools (Choice B) are typically seen in the icteric phase when there is a lack of bile flow. Icteric sclera (Choice C) refers to yellowing of the eyes, which is a characteristic of the icteric phase. Pruritus (Choice D), which is itching of the skin, is also more commonly associated with the icteric phase when bile salts accumulate in the skin.

2. A heparin infusion is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 pounds. After administering a bolus dose of 80 units/kg, the nurse calculates the infusion rate for the heparin sodium at 18 units/kg/hour. The available solution is Heparin Sodium 25,000 units in 5% Dextrose Injection 250 ml. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, first, find the total dose required per hour, which is the patient's weight (220 pounds) multiplied by the prescribed rate (18 units/kg/hour). This equals 3960 units/hour. Next, determine how many ml of the solution contain 25,000 units; this is 250 ml. Divide the total dose required per hour (3960 units) by the units per ml (25,000 units/250 ml) to find how many ml are needed per hour. This results in 27 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 27 ml/hour. Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not account for the concentration of the heparin solution. Choices C (36) and D (45) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculations based on the patient's weight and the heparin concentration in the solution.

3. A client with a prescription for “do not resuscitate” (DNR) begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client’s status, what priority action should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client’s need for pain medication
• B. Document the impending signs of death
• C. Inform the nurse manager of the client’s status
• D. Communicate the client’s status to the chaplain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client’s need for pain medication is the priority action as it ensures comfort at the end of life. Pain management is crucial in providing comfort and dignity to clients during their final moments. Documenting impending signs of death (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority over addressing the client's comfort. Updating the nurse manager (choice C) and informing the chaplain (choice D) can follow once the client's immediate needs are met.

4. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

5. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

• A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
• B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
• C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
• D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.

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