Nursing Elites

1. To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Percussion of abdomen
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, thereby improving the client's mental status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness helps determine if the medication is effectively managing hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices B, percussion of the abdomen, and D, blood glucose, are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic response to lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C, serum electrolytes, while important in overall patient care, is not the primary assessment to determine lactulose's effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
• B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
• C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.

3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with tetanus?

• A. Open window shades to provide natural light
• B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
• C. Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room
• D. Reposition from side to side every hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with tetanus is to minimize the amount of stimuli in the room. Tetanus can lead to muscle spasms and heightened sensitivity to stimuli, making it essential to reduce environmental triggers for the patient's comfort and safety. Opening window shades for natural light (Choice A) may exacerbate sensitivity to light and worsen symptoms. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (Choice B) is not directly related to managing tetanus symptoms. While repositioning the patient every hour (Choice D) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, it is not the priority when managing tetanus, which requires a quiet, low-stimulus environment to minimize muscle spasms and discomfort.

4. The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?

• A. Current lab report indicates an Aptt at 1.5 times the client's control
• B. The client states that his right calf is aching and wants pain medication
• C. The spouse is assisting the client who is shaving with an electric razor
• D. Several bruised areas are noted on the client's upper extremities bilaterally

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bruised areas on the client's upper extremities bilaterally indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which requires careful assessment before administering enoxaparin. Bruising suggests potential issues with clotting and hemostasis, making it crucial for the nurse to further evaluate the client's bleeding risk. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the assessment of bleeding risk associated with enoxaparin administration and are therefore incorrect. Choice A provides information about the client's Aptt, which is not directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk for enoxaparin. Choice B addresses pain management, and Choice C involves the client's daily activities with no direct link to the bleeding risk assessment.

5. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Ketonuria
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.

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