Nursing Elites

1. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
• B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
• C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
• D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

3. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RMP) daily, so direct observation therapy (DOT) is initiated while the client is hospitalized. Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Describe feelings about taking daily medications
• B. Take medications in the presence of the nurse
• C. Notify the nurse after self-medication is completed
• D. Keep a daily record of all medications taken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client undergoing direct observation therapy for TB is to take medications in the presence of the nurse. This approach ensures that the client is actually taking the medications as prescribed, reducing the risk of noncompliance. Choice A is incorrect because the focus should be on ensuring the client physically takes the medications rather than discussing feelings. Choice C is incorrect as it does not ensure direct observation. Choice D is incorrect because self-reporting or keeping a record does not guarantee that the client is actually taking the medications.

4. A newborn whose mother is HIV positive is admitted to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Initiate treatment with zidovudine (ZDV) syrup at 2 mg per kg
• B. Bathe the infant with dilute chlorhexidine (Hibiclens) or soap
• C. Measure and record the infant's frontal-occipital circumference
• D. Administer vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON) IM in the vastus lateralis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a newborn potentially exposed to HIV is to bathe the infant with dilute chlorhexidine or soap. This helps reduce the risk of infection. Initiating treatment with zidovudine would be important but not the first priority. Measuring and recording the infant's frontal-occipital circumference and administering vitamin K are important tasks but are not the priority when dealing with potential HIV exposure. Immediate hygiene measures are crucial to minimize the risk of transmission.

5. Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?

• A. The client was medicated for pain with a narcotic analgesic IM 6 hours ago
• B. A 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting for the past 6 months
• C. The obstetrician explained a procedure that a neurologist will perform
• D. The client is illiterate but verbalizes understanding and consent for the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.

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