after years of struggling with weight management a middle age man is evaluated for gastroplasty he has experienced difficulty with managing his diabet
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam

1. After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.

2. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client? (Enter numeric value only)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer, multiply the dose per administration (0.4 mg) by the maximum number of doses allowed (5 doses): 0.4 mg/dose * 5 doses = 2 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer a maximum dosage of 2 mg to the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

3. The client who had a below-the-knee (BKA) amputation is being prepared for discharge to home. Which recommendation should the nurse provide this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with a below-the-knee amputation preparing for discharge is to wash the stump with soap and water. This helps maintain cleanliness and prevent infection. Inspecting the skin for redness is important to monitor for signs of infection, but it is not a specific recommendation for a BKA amputation. Using a residual limb shrinker can aid in shaping and reducing swelling in the residual limb but is not usually done immediately after a BKA amputation. Applying alcohol to the stump after bathing is not recommended as it can lead to skin irritation and dryness.

4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.

5. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.

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