Nursing Elites

1. Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.

• A. Observe for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected
• B. Select an ID site using the volar surface of the forearm
• C. Use a 26 or 27-gauge needle with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches on a 1 ml calibrated syringe
• D. Ensure that the needle is inserted into the skin with the bevel up

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.

2. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
• B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
• D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.

3. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client’s statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram.
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure.
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends.
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is recommended because breasts are least tender and swollen at this point, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, it is not the immediate action needed based on the client's statements. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE technique timing needs adjustment rather than an in-depth review by a nurse practitioner. Choice D is incorrect because the client should modify the timing of the BSE for better effectiveness.

4. After administering a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain
• B. Measure the client’s fluid intake and output
• C. Monitor the client’s serum electrolyte levels
• D. Auscultate for bowel sounds in all quadrants

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain. The effectiveness of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is best evaluated by assessing the relief of gastrointestinal symptoms, such as heartburn, acid reflux, or stomach pain. These medications work by reducing the production of stomach acid, so improvement in these symptoms indicates the effectiveness of the PPI. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of a PPI. Measuring fluid intake and output, monitoring serum electrolyte levels, and auscultating for bowel sounds are important for assessing hydration status, electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal motility, respectively. However, they are not specific to evaluating PPI effectiveness.

5. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit? The client who is

• A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
• B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago.
• C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
• D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from dehydration caused by severe diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client who is ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago is stable enough for transfer compared to the other clients. Choice A should not be transferred as the client is still in the learning phase of self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, requiring close monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred immediately after having a permanent pacemaker insertion as they need telemetry monitoring for any complications. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to dehydration caused by severe diarrhea, requiring immediate intervention and close monitoring on the telemetry unit.

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