Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted for uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus and hyperkalemia. The nurse administers an IV dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry.
• B. Maintain venous access with an infusion of normal saline.
• C. Assess glucose levels via finger stick every 4 to 6 hours.
• D. Evaluate hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac activity is crucial in this scenario because hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring of the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry allows for early detection of any potential cardiac complications. Maintaining venous access with a normal saline infusion is important for hydration but does not address the immediate risk of cardiac dysrhythmias posed by hyperkalemia. Assessing glucose levels is essential in diabetes management but is not the priority when dealing with hyperkalemia-induced cardiac risks. Evaluating hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function is important in ARF but is not as urgent as monitoring the client's cardiac activity in the context of hyperkalemia.

2. What should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) in a client with bleeding esophageal varices?

• A. Vasodilatation of the extremities
• B. Chest pain and dysrhythmia
• C. Hypotension and tachycardia
• D. Decreasing GI cramping and nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the IV infusion of vasopressin in a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the nurse should monitor for chest pain and dysrhythmia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that can cause cardiovascular effects, including chest pain and dysrhythmias. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as vasopressin is not expected to cause vasodilatation of the extremities, hypotension, tachycardia, or improvements in GI symptoms such as cramping and nausea.

3. A client with complaints of shortness of breath and abdominal pain 1 week after bariatric surgery is admitted for follow-up evaluation. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rectal temperature of 101°F
• B. Complaints of left shoulder pain
• C. Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
• D. Sustained sinus tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg indicates possible hypovolemia or shock, which requires immediate attention. Hypotension can be a sign of decreased perfusion to vital organs, potentially leading to organ failure. The other options, such as a rectal temperature of 101°F, complaints of left shoulder pain, or sustained sinus tachycardia, while important, do not present the same level of immediate threat to the client's well-being as a critically low blood pressure.

4. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client’s B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client’s oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated BNP levels in a client with heart failure may indicate worsening heart failure. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take when encountering an elevated BNP before administering furosemide is to hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. This precaution is necessary to ensure the client's safety and prevent potential complications. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not address the issue of the elevated BNP, which is crucial in this situation. Option C is also incorrect because administering furosemide without consulting the healthcare provider could be harmful if the client's condition is deteriorating.

5. The nurse is admitting a client from the post-anesthesia unit to the postoperative surgical care unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Advance to clear liquids as tolerated
• B. Straight catheterization if unable to void
• C. Administer Cefazolin 1 gram IVPQ q6 hours
• D. Obtain a complete blood cell count (CBC) in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform straight catheterization if the client is unable to void. This action is essential to prevent urinary retention and its potential complications following anesthesia. Option A, advancing to clear liquids, is not the priority upon admission as the focus should be on urinary function first. Option C involves administering an antibiotic, which is important but not the immediate priority. Option D, obtaining a CBC, can be done later and is not as crucial as ensuring proper urinary function postoperatively.

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