Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted for uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus and hyperkalemia. The nurse administers an IV dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry.
• B. Maintain venous access with an infusion of normal saline.
• C. Assess glucose levels via finger stick every 4 to 6 hours.
• D. Evaluate hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac activity is crucial in this scenario because hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring of the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry allows for early detection of any potential cardiac complications. Maintaining venous access with a normal saline infusion is important for hydration but does not address the immediate risk of cardiac dysrhythmias posed by hyperkalemia. Assessing glucose levels is essential in diabetes management but is not the priority when dealing with hyperkalemia-induced cardiac risks. Evaluating hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function is important in ARF but is not as urgent as monitoring the client's cardiac activity in the context of hyperkalemia.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled, “Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml.” How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 12.5
• B. 7.5
• C. 10.0
• D. 15.0

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount in ml that the nurse should administer every 8 hours, first, determine the amount of amoxicillin needed per dose. 1.5 grams daily divided by 3 doses equals 0.5 grams per dose. Since 0.5 grams is equivalent to 500 mg (1 gram = 1000 mg), and each 5 ml of the suspension contains 200 mg of amoxicillin, the nurse needs to administer (500 mg / 200 mg) * 5 ml = 12.5 ml every 8 hours. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

3. An infant is receiving penicillin G procaine 220,000 units IM. The drug is supplied as 600,000 units/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 0.4
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose (220,000 units) / Dose on hand (600,000 units) x Volume of the available dose (1 ml). This results in 0.4 ml to be administered. Choice A is correct. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not provided.

4. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?

• A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
• B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
• C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
• D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.

5. After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral Wheezing
• B. Urticaria
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urticaria. An itchy rash following a change in detergent may indicate an allergic reaction, specifically urticaria (hives), which requires immediate attention. Urticaria can be a sign of a severe allergic reaction, such as anaphylaxis. Bilateral wheezing (choice A) may suggest respiratory issues like asthma but is not directly related to the skin rash. Peripheral edema (choice C) and elevated blood pressure (choice D) are not typically associated with an allergic reaction to laundry detergent and would not be the priority assessment findings in this scenario.

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